Category: Uncategorized

Version:1.0 StartHTML:000000275 EndHTML:000142252 StartFragment:000109001 EndFragment:000142208 StartSelection:000109113 EndSelection:000142048 SourceURL:https://myclasses.argosy.edu/d2l/lms/dropbox/user/folder_submit_files.d2l?db=57742&grpid=0&isprv=0&bp=0&ou=14913   .d2l-icon-0 {   -ms-flex-align:center;-webkit-align-items:center;align-items:center;color:#565a5c;display:-ms-inline-flexbox;display:-webkit-inline-flex;display:inline-flex;fill:currentcolor;height:18px;-ms-flex-pack:center;-webkit-justify-content:center;justify-content:center;stroke:none;vertical-align:middle;width:18px }  .d2l-icon-0[icon*=”d2l-tier2:”] {   height:24px;width:24px }  .d2l-icon-0[icon*=”d2l-tier3:”] {   height:30px;width:30px }  d2l-dropdown {   display:inline-block;outline:0;overflow:visible;position:relative }  d2l-menu-item {   background-color:#fff;box-sizing:border-box;cursor:pointer;display:block;font-size:.8rem;outline:0;width:100% }  d2l-menu-item[disabled],d2l-menu-item[disabled]:focus,d2l-menu-item[disabled]:hover {   cursor:default;opacity:.75 }  d2l-menu-item[hidden] {   display:none }  d2l-menu-item {   display:flex;padding:.75rem 1rem }  d2l-menu-item>span.d2l-menu-item {   flex:auto;line-height:1rem;overflow-x:hidden;overflow-y:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis;white-space:nowrap }  d2l-menu-item>d2l-icon.d2l-menu-item {   flex:none;margin-top:.1rem }  d2l-menu-item-return {   background-color:#fff;box-sizing:border-box;cursor:pointer;display:block;font-size:.8rem;outline:0;width:100% }  d2l-menu-item-return[disabled],d2l-menu-item-return[disabled]:focus,d2l-menu-item-return[disabled]:hover {   cursor:default;opacity:.75 }  d2l-menu-item-return[hidden] {   display:none }  d2l-menu-item-return {   display:flex;padding:.75rem 1rem }  d2l-menu-item-return>span.d2l-menu-item-return {   flex:auto;line-height:1rem;overflow-x:hidden;overflow-y:hidden;text-decoration:none;text-overflow:ellipsis;white-space:nowrap }  d2l-menu-item-return>d2l-icon.d2l-menu-item-return {   flex:none;margin-right:1rem;margin-top:.1rem }  [dir=rtl] d2l-menu-item-return>d2l-icon.d2l-menu-item-return, d2l-menu-item-return[dir=rtl]>d2l-icon.d2l-menu-item-return {   margin-right:0;margin-left:1rem }  d2l-menu-item-separator {   display:block }  .d2l-menu-0 {   box-sizing:border-box;display:inline-block;position:relative;left:0;overflow:hidden;width:100%;-webkit-transition:height .3s linear;transition:height .3s linear }  [no-animate-height] .d2l-menu-0, .d2l-menu-0[no-animate-height] {   transition:none }  .d2l-menu-0[child-view] {   display:none;position:absolute;top:0;left:100% }  .d2l-menu-0[shown] {   display:inline-block }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-hierarchical-view-content.d2l-child-view-show.d2l-menu {   -webkit-animation:show-child-view-animation-d2l-menu-0 forwards .3s linear;animation:show-child-view-animation-d2l-menu-0 .3s forwards linear }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-hierarchical-view-content.d2l-child-view-hide.d2l-menu {   -webkit-animation:hide-child-view-animation-d2l-menu-0 forwards .3s linear;animation:hide-child-view-animation-d2l-menu-0 .3s forwards linear }  @keyframes show-child-view-animation-d2l-menu-0 { 0% {   transform:translate(0,0) }  100% {   transform:translate(-100%,0) }  }  @-webkit-keyframes show-child-view-animation-d2l-menu-0 { 0% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,0) }  100% {   -webkit-transform:translate(-100%,0) }  }  @keyframes hide-child-view-animation-d2l-menu-0 { 0% {   transform:translate(-100%,0) }  100% {   transform:translate(0,0) }  }  @-webkit-keyframes hide-child-view-animation-d2l-menu-0 { 0% {   -webkit-transform:translate(-100%,0) }  100% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,0) }  }  .d2l-menu-0 {   box-sizing:border-box;display:block;width:100% }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu d2l-menu-item-return[role=menuitem].d2l-menu {   border:1px solid transparent;border-top-color:#e6eaf0;color:#565a5c }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitem],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitemcheckbox],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitemradio],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu d2l-menu-item-return[role=menuitem].d2l-menu {   border-top-color:transparent }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitem]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitem]:hover,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitemcheckbox]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitemcheckbox]:hover,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitemradio]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-first[role=menuitemradio]:hover,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem]:hover,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox]:hover,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio]:hover,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu d2l-menu-item-return[role=menuitem].d2l-menu:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu d2l-menu-item-return[role=menuitem].d2l-menu:hover {   background-color:#e8f2f9;border-top:1px solid #29a6ff;border-bottom:1px solid #29a6ff;color:#006fbf }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-last[role=menuitem]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-last[role=menuitem]:hover,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-last[role=menuitemcheckbox]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-last[role=menuitemcheckbox]:hover,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-last[role=menuitemradio]:focus,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > .d2l-menu-item-last[role=menuitemradio]:hover {   border-bottom-color:#29a6ff }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem]:focus+[role=menuitem],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem]:hover+[role=menuitem],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox]:focus+[role=menuitemcheckbox],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox]:hover+[role=menuitemcheckbox],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio]:focus+[role=menuitemradio],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio]:hover+[role=menuitemradio],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu-item-return-focus.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem]:first-child,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu-item-return-focus.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox]:first-child,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu-item-return-focus.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio]:first-child,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu-item-return-hover.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem]:first-child,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu-item-return-hover.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox]:first-child,.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu-item-return-hover.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio]:first-child {   border-top-color:transparent }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > d2l-menu-item-separator {   border:0 }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitem],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitemcheckbox],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitemradio] {   border-top:1px solid #b9c2d0 }  .d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem]:focus+d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitem],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitem]:hover+d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitem],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox]:focus+d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitemcheckbox],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemcheckbox]:hover+d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitemcheckbox],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio]:focus+d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitemradio],.d2l-menu-0 .d2l-menu-items.d2l-menu > [role=menuitemradio]:hover+d2l-menu-item-separator+[role=menuitemradio] {   border-top-color:transparent }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 {   box-sizing:border-box;color:#565a5c;display:none;left:0;position:absolute;text-align:left;top:calc(100% + 20px);width:100%;z-index:1000 }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[opened] {   display:inline-block }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[opened] {   -webkit-animation:d2l-dropdown-animation-d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .3s ease;animation:d2l-dropdown-animation-d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .3s ease }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[opened-above] {   bottom:calc(100% + 20px);top:auto;-webkit-animation:d2l-dropdown-above-animation-d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .3s ease;animation:d2l-dropdown-above-animation-d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .3s ease }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-menu {   position:absolute;display:inline-block;clip:rect(-5px,21px,8px,-3px);top:-7px;left:calc(50% – 7px);z-index:1 }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-menu>div.d2l-dropdown-menu {   background-color:#fff;border:1px solid #d3d9e3;border-radius:.1rem;box-shadow:-4px -4px 12px -5px rgba(86,90,92,.2);height:16px;width:16px;transform:rotate(45deg);-webkit-transform:rotate(45deg) }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[opened-above] .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-menu {   top:auto;clip:rect(9px,21px,22px,-3px);bottom:-8px }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[opened-above] .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-menu>div.d2l-dropdown-menu {   box-shadow:4px 4px 12px -5px rgba(86,90,92,.2) }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[no-pointer] .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-menu {   display:none }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-position.d2l-dropdown-menu {   border-radius:.3rem;display:inline-block;position:absolute }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-width.d2l-dropdown-menu {   background-color:#fff;border:1px solid #d3d9e3;border-radius:.3rem;box-shadow:0 2px 12px 0 rgba(0,0,0,.15);box-sizing:border-box;min-width:70px;max-width:370px;position:absolute;width:100vw }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[opened-above] .d2l-dropdown-content-width.d2l-dropdown-menu {   bottom:100% }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-container.d2l-dropdown-menu {   box-sizing:border-box;display:inline-block;max-width:100%;outline:0;padding:1rem }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[no-padding] .d2l-dropdown-content-container.d2l-dropdown-menu {   padding:0 }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-bottom.d2l-dropdown-menu,.d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-top.d2l-dropdown-menu {   height:5px;position:relative;z-index:1 }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-top.d2l-dropdown-menu {   border-top-left-radius:.3rem;border-top-right-radius:.3rem }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-bottom.d2l-dropdown-menu {   border-bottom-left-radius:.3rem;border-bottom-right-radius:.3rem }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-top-scroll.d2l-dropdown-menu {   box-shadow:0 3px 3px 0 rgba(0,0,0,.05) }  .d2l-dropdown-menu-0 .d2l-dropdown-content-bottom-scroll.d2l-dropdown-menu {   box-shadow:0 -3px 3px 0 rgba(0,0,0,.05) }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-dropdown-menu-0, .d2l-dropdown-menu-0[dir=rtl] {   left:auto;right:0;text-align:right }  @keyframes d2l-dropdown-animation-d2l-dropdown-menu-0 { 0% {   transform:translate(0,-10px);opacity:0 }  100% {   transform:translate(0,0);opacity:1 }  }  @keyframes d2l-dropdown-above-animation-d2l-dropdown-menu-0 { 0% {   transform:translate(0,10px);opacity:0 }  100% {   transform:translate(0,0);opacity:1 }  }  @-webkit-keyframes d2l-dropdown-animation-d2l-dropdown-menu-0 { 0% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,-10px);opacity:0 }  100% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,0);opacity:1 }  }  @-webkit-keyframes d2l-dropdown-above-animation-d2l-dropdown-menu-0 { 0% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,10px);opacity:0 }  100% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,0);opacity:1 }  }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 {   box-sizing:border-box;color:#565a5c;display:none;left:0;position:absolute;text-align:left;top:calc(100% + 0px);width:100%;z-index:1000 }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1[opened] {   display:inline-block }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1[opened] {   -webkit-animation:d2l-dropdown-animation-d2l-dropdown-content-1 .3s ease;animation:d2l-dropdown-animation-d2l-dropdown-content-1 .3s ease }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1[opened-above] {   bottom:calc(100% + 0px);top:auto;-webkit-animation:d2l-dropdown-above-animation-d2l-dropdown-content-1 .3s ease;animation:d2l-dropdown-above-animation-d2l-dropdown-content-1 .3s ease }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-content {   position:absolute;display:inline-block;clip:rect(-5px,21px,8px,-3px);top:-7px;left:calc(50% – 7px);z-index:1 }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-content>div.d2l-dropdown-content {   background-color:#fff;border:1px solid #d3d9e3;border-radius:.1rem;box-shadow:-4px -4px 12px -5px rgba(86,90,92,.2);height:16px;width:16px;transform:rotate(45deg);-webkit-transform:rotate(45deg) }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1[opened-above] .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-content {   top:auto;clip:rect(9px,21px,22px,-3px);bottom:-8px }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1[opened-above] .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-content>div.d2l-dropdown-content {   box-shadow:4px 4px 12px -5px rgba(86,90,92,.2) }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1[no-pointer] .d2l-dropdown-content-pointer.d2l-dropdown-content {   display:none }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-position.d2l-dropdown-content {   border-radius:.3rem;display:inline-block;position:absolute }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-width.d2l-dropdown-content {   background-color:#fff;border:1px solid #d3d9e3;border-radius:.3rem;box-shadow:0 2px 12px 0 rgba(0,0,0,.15);box-sizing:border-box;min-width:70px;max-width:370px;position:absolute;width:100vw }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1[opened-above] .d2l-dropdown-content-width.d2l-dropdown-content {   bottom:100% }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-container.d2l-dropdown-content {   box-sizing:border-box;display:inline-block;max-width:100%;outline:0;padding:1rem }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1[no-padding] .d2l-dropdown-content-container.d2l-dropdown-content {   padding:0 }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-bottom.d2l-dropdown-content,.d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-top.d2l-dropdown-content {   height:5px;position:relative;z-index:1 }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-top.d2l-dropdown-content {   border-top-left-radius:.3rem;border-top-right-radius:.3rem }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-bottom.d2l-dropdown-content {   border-bottom-left-radius:.3rem;border-bottom-right-radius:.3rem }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-top-scroll.d2l-dropdown-content {   box-shadow:0 3px 3px 0 rgba(0,0,0,.05) }  .d2l-dropdown-content-1 .d2l-dropdown-content-bottom-scroll.d2l-dropdown-content {   box-shadow:0 -3px 3px 0 rgba(0,0,0,.05) }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-dropdown-content-1, .d2l-dropdown-content-1[dir=rtl] {   left:auto;right:0;text-align:right }  @keyframes d2l-dropdown-animation-d2l-dropdown-content-1 { 0% {   transform:translate(0,-10px);opacity:0 }  100% {   transform:translate(0,0);opacity:1 }  }  @keyframes d2l-dropdown-above-animation-d2l-dropdown-content-1 { 0% {   transform:translate(0,10px);opacity:0 }  100% {   transform:translate(0,0);opacity:1 }  }  @-webkit-keyframes d2l-dropdown-animation-d2l-dropdown-content-1 { 0% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,-10px);opacity:0 }  100% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,0);opacity:1 }  }  @-webkit-keyframes d2l-dropdown-above-animation-d2l-dropdown-content-1 { 0% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,10px);opacity:0 }  100% {   -webkit-transform:translate(0,0);opacity:1 }  }  d2l-menu-item-link {   background-color:#fff;box-sizing:border-box;cursor:pointer;display:block;font-size:.8rem;outline:0;width:100% }  d2l-menu-item-link[disabled],d2l-menu-item-link[disabled]:focus,d2l-menu-item-link[disabled]:hover {   cursor:default;opacity:.75 }  d2l-menu-item-link[hidden] {   display:none }  d2l-menu-item-link {   display:block;padding:0 }  d2l-menu-item-link>a.d2l-menu-item-link {   color:inherit;display:block;line-height:1rem;outline:0;overflow-x:hidden;padding:.75rem 1rem;text-decoration:none;text-overflow:ellipsis;white-space:nowrap }  .d2l-icon-button-0 {   ; }  .d2l-icon-button-0::-moz-focus-inner {   border:0 }  .d2l-icon-button-0 {   background-color:transparent;border:none;cursor:pointer;display:inline-block;font-family:inherit;font-size:inherit;line-height:0;margin:0;padding:0;text-decoration:none; }  .d2l-icon-button-0:disabled {   opacity:.5 }  .d2l-icon-button-0:focus,.d2l-icon-button-0:hover {   outline-style:none; }  .d2l-icon-button-0 d2l-icon.d2l-icon-button {   transition:color .3s ease; }  .d2l-icon-button-0:focus d2l-icon.d2l-icon-button,.d2l-icon-button-0:hover d2l-icon.d2l-icon-button {   color:#005694; }  .d2l-icon-button-0 {   ; }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-icon-button-0, .d2l-icon-button-0[dir=rtl] {   ; }  .d2l-icon-button-0>span.d2l-icon-button {   position:absolute!important;overflow:hidden;width:1px;height:1px;white-space:nowrap;left:-10000px; }  d2l-image-action-group {   display:inline-block;line-height:0 }  d2l-image-action-group >a[is=d2l-image-action-link],d2l-image-action-group >button[is=d2l-image-action] {   margin-right:1.2rem }  d2l-image-action-group >a[is=d2l-image-action-link]:last-child,d2l-image-action-group >button[is=d2l-image-action]:last-child {   margin-right:0 }  [dir=rtl] d2l-image-action-group >a[is=d2l-image-action-link], d2l-image-action-group[dir=rtl] >a[is=d2l-image-action-link],[dir=rtl] d2l-image-action-group >button[is=d2l-image-action], d2l-image-action-group[dir=rtl] >button[is=d2l-image-action] {   margin-right:0;margin-left:1.2rem }  [dir=rtl] d2l-image-action-group >a[is=d2l-image-action-link]:last-child, d2l-image-action-group[dir=rtl] >a[is=d2l-image-action-link]:last-child,[dir=rtl] d2l-image-action-group >button[is=d2l-image-action]:last-child, d2l-image-action-group[dir=rtl] >button[is=d2l-image-action]:last-child {   margin-left:0 }  iron-a11y-announcer {   display:inline-block;position:fixed;clip:rect(0,0,0,0) }  d2l-course-image {   display:flex;align-items:center }  .d2l-course-image-hidden.d2l-course-image {   opacity:0 }  .shown.d2l-course-image {   animation-name:shown;animation-duration:.5s;animation-fill-mode:forwards }  @keyframes shown { 0% {   opacity:0 }  100% {   opacity:1 }  }  img.d2l-course-image {   min-height:100%;width:100% }  iron-scroll-threshold {   display:block }  .d2l-floating-buttons-0 {   box-sizing:border-box;display:block }  .d2l-floating-buttons-0 .d2l-floating-buttons-container.d2l-floating-buttons {   border-top:1px solid transparent;display:block;margin:0 auto;width:100% }  .d2l-floating-buttons-0 .d2l-floating-buttons-container.d2l-floating-buttons-floating.d2l-floating-buttons {   animation:d2l-floating-buttons-animation-d2l-floating-buttons-0 .5s ease-out;-webkit-animation:d2l-floating-buttons-animation-d2l-floating-buttons-0 .5s ease-out;background-color:#fff;background-color:rgba(255,255,255,.88);border-top-color:#d3d9e3;bottom:0;box-shadow:0 -2px 4px rgba(86,90,92,.2);left:0;position:fixed;right:0;z-index:999 }  .d2l-floating-buttons-0 .d2l-floating-buttons-container.d2l-floating-buttons>div.d2l-floating-buttons {   padding:.75rem 0 0 0;position:relative }  .d2l-floating-buttons-0 .d2l-floating-buttons-container.d2l-floating-buttons  button {   margin-right:0.75rem;margin-bottom:0.75rem }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-floating-buttons-0 .d2l-floating-buttons-container.d2l-floating-buttons  button, .d2l-floating-buttons-0[dir=rtl] .d2l-floating-buttons-container.d2l-floating-buttons  button {   margin-left:0.75rem;margin-right:0 }  @keyframes d2l-floating-buttons-animation-d2l-floating-buttons-0 { 0% {   border-color:transparent;background-color:transparent;transform:translate(0,10px) }  100% {   border-top-color:#d3d9e3;background-color:rgba(255,255,255,.88);transform:translate(0,0) }  }  @-webkit-keyframes d2l-floating-buttons-animation-d2l-floating-buttons-0 { 0% {   border-color:transparent;background-color:transparent;-webkit-transform:translate(0,10px) }  100% {   border-top-color:#d3d9e3;background-color:rgba(255,255,255,.88);-webkit-transform:translate(0,0) }  }  d2l-dropdown-button {   display:inline-block;outline:0;overflow:visible;position:relative }  d2l-dropdown-button d2l-icon.d2l-dropdown-button {   height:.8rem;width:.8rem }  d2l-dropdown-button button.d2l-dropdown-button>span.d2l-dropdown-button {   margin-right:.6rem }  d2l-dropdown-button[primary] d2l-icon.d2l-dropdown-button {   color:#fff }  [dir=rtl] d2l-dropdown-button button.d2l-dropdown-button>span.d2l-dropdown-button, d2l-dropdown-button[dir=rtl] button.d2l-dropdown-button>span.d2l-dropdown-button {   margin-left:.6rem;margin-right:0 }  d2l-button-group {   display:block }  .responsive-button-list.d2l-button-group {   position:relative }  d2l-button-group .responsive-button-list.d2l-button-group,d2l-button-group[can-shrink] .responsive-button-list.d2l-button-group > d2l-button-list {   display:-ms-flexbox;display:-webkit-flex;display:flex;-ms-flex-align:stretch;-webkit-align-items:stretch;align-items:stretch }  d2l-button-group .responsive-button-list.d2l-button-group {   -ms-flex-wrap:wrap;-webkit-flex-wrap:wrap;flex-wrap:wrap }  d2l-button-group[can-shrink] .responsive-button-list.d2l-button-group,d2l-button-group[can-shrink] .responsive-button-list.d2l-button-group > d2l-button-list {   -ms-flex-wrap:nowrap;-webkit-flex-wrap:nowrap;flex-wrap:nowrap }  d2l-button-group .responsive-button-list.d2l-button-group > d2l-button-list {   -ms-flex:0 1 auto;-webkit-flex:0 1 auto;flex:0 1 auto }  d2l-action-button-group {   display:block }  .responsive-button-list.d2l-action-button-group {   position:relative }  d2l-action-button-group .responsive-button-list.d2l-action-button-group,d2l-action-button-group[can-shrink] .responsive-button-list.d2l-action-button-group > d2l-button-list {   display:-ms-flexbox;display:-webkit-flex;display:flex;-ms-flex-align:stretch;-webkit-align-items:stretch;align-items:stretch }  d2l-action-button-group .responsive-button-list.d2l-action-button-group {   -ms-flex-wrap:wrap;-webkit-flex-wrap:wrap;flex-wrap:wrap }  d2l-action-button-group[can-shrink] .responsive-button-list.d2l-action-button-group,d2l-action-button-group[can-shrink] .responsive-button-list.d2l-action-button-group > d2l-button-list {   -ms-flex-wrap:nowrap;-webkit-flex-wrap:nowrap;flex-wrap:nowrap }  d2l-action-button-group .responsive-button-list.d2l-action-button-group > d2l-button-list {   -ms-flex:0 1 auto;-webkit-flex:0 1 auto;flex:0 1 auto }  .responsive-button-list.d2l-action-button-group > d2l-button-list {   display:-ms-flexbox;display:-webkit-flex;display:flex;-ms-flex-align:stretch;-webkit-align-items:stretch;align-items:stretch;-ms-flex-wrap:wrap;-webkit-flex-wrap:wrap;flex-wrap:wrap }  d2l-sticky-element {   position:-webkit-sticky;position:sticky;top:0;z-index:1 }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 {   display:block;width:100%;position:relative; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   outline:0;overflow-x:auto;width:100%;box-sizing:border-box;; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[h-scrollbar] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper,[dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[h-scrollbar] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl][h-scrollbar] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   border-left:dashed 1px #d3d9e3;border-right:dashed 1px #d3d9e3; }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0:host([h-scrollbar]) .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl]:host([h-scrollbar]) .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   border-left:dashed 1px #d3d9e3;border-right:dashed 1px #d3d9e3; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[scrollbar-left] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper,[dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[scrollbar-right] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl][scrollbar-right] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   border-left:none; }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0:host([scrollbar-right]) .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl]:host([scrollbar-right]) .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   border-left:none; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[scrollbar-right] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper,[dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[scrollbar-left] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl][scrollbar-left] .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   border-right:none; }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0:host([scrollbar-left]) .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl]:host([scrollbar-left]) .wrapper.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   border-right:none; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .action.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   position:absolute;top:10px;border-radius:50%;border:1px solid #d3d9e3;background-color:#f9fafb;height:18px;width:18px;padding:10px;box-sizing:content-box; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .sticky.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   display:none;margin-bottom:60px; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .right.d2l-scroll-wrapper .action.d2l-scroll-wrapper,[dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .left.d2l-scroll-wrapper .action.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl] .left.d2l-scroll-wrapper .action.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   right:-15px;left:auto; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .left.d2l-scroll-wrapper .action.d2l-scroll-wrapper,[dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .right.d2l-scroll-wrapper .action.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl] .right.d2l-scroll-wrapper .action.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   right:auto;left:-15px; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .right.d2l-scroll-wrapper,[dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .left.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl] .left.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   float:right }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .left.d2l-scroll-wrapper,[dir=rtl] .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0 .right.d2l-scroll-wrapper, .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[dir=rtl] .right.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   float:left }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[h-scrollbar] .sticky.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   display:inline; }  .d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[scrollbar-left] .left.d2l-scroll-wrapper,.d2l-scroll-wrapper-0[scrollbar-right] .right.d2l-scroll-wrapper {   display:none; }  d2l-table-wrapper {   background-color:transparent;display:block;width:100%; }  .d2l-table-0 {   ; }  .d2l-table-0 {   background-color:transparent;border-collapse:separate!important;border-spacing:0;display:table;font-size:.8rem;font-weight:400;width:100%; }  .d2l-table-0 >thead {   display:table-header-group; }  .d2l-table-0 >tfoot {   display:table-footer-group;background-color:#fff; }  .d2l-table-0 >tbody {   background-color:#fff; }  .d2l-table-0 >*>tr {   display:table-row; }  .d2l-table-0 >*>tr>td,.d2l-table-0 >*>tr>th {   border-top:1px solid #d3d9e3;border-right:1px solid #d3d9e3;display:table-cell;text-align:left;vertical-align:middle;font-weight:inherit;padding:1rem; }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >*>tr>td, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >*>tr>td,[dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >*>tr>th, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >*>tr>th {   text-align:right }  .d2l-table-0 >*>tr[header]>th,.d2l-table-0 >thead>tr>th {   color:#565a5c;font-family:inherit;font-size:.7rem;line-height:1rem;background-color:#f9fafb;margin:1rem 0; }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >*>tr>td:first-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >*>tr>td:first-child,[dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >*>tr>th:first-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >*>tr>th:first-child {   border-left:0 }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >*>tr>td:last-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >*>tr>td:last-child,[dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >*>tr>th:last-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >*>tr>th:last-child {   border-right:1px solid #d3d9e3 }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>td:first-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>td:first-child,[dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>th:first-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>th:first-child,[dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >thead>tr:first-child>td:first-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >thead>tr:first-child>td:first-child,[dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >thead>tr:first-child>th:first-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >thead>tr:first-child>th:first-child {   border-top-left-radius:0;border-top-right-radius:0.3rem }  .d2l-table-0 >tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>td:last-child,.d2l-table-0 >tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>th:last-child,.d2l-table-0 >thead>tr:first-child>td:last-child,.d2l-table-0 >thead>tr:first-child>th:last-child {   border-top-right-radius:0.3rem }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >thead~tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>td:first-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >thead~tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>td:first-child,[dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >thead~tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>th:first-child, .d2l-table-0[dir=rtl] >thead~tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>th:first-child,.d2l-table-0 >thead~tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>td:last-child,.d2l-table-0 >thead~tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>th:last-child {   border-top-right-radius:0 }  .d2l-table-0 >tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>th,.d2l-table-0 >thead>tr:first-child>th {   border-top:1px solid #d3d9e3 }  .d2l-table-0 >thead~tbody:first-of-type>tr:first-child>th {   border-top:1px solid #d3d9e3 }  [dir=rtl] .d2l-table-0 >tbody:first-of-type>tr:fi

California College San Diego Principles in Palliative Care Presentation

California College San Diego Principles in Palliative Care Presentation

Assignment 2: Critical Evaluation of Court Case

It is important to understand the impact an expert testimony may have in the ultimate decision made by a court. In addition, it is helpful for practitioners of forensic psychology to be able to read and understand legal cases.

Tasks:

Click here to review the case Commonwealth of Virginia v. Allen (2005).

The case describes an appellate legal opinion or court decision involving expert witness testimony. When a case is appealed, it goes to an appellate or to a higher court. The appellate court then reviews the findings of the lower court, which in this case was the trial court. The appellate court offered the following two opinions: The first opinion (Commonwealth of Virginia v. Allen, 2005, pp. 1–24) is the majority opinion and is the one that counts. The second opinion (Commonwealth of Virginia v. Allen, 2005, pp. 24–31) is an opinion filed by a minority of judges who concurred (agreed) in part and dissented (disagreed) in part with the majority of the judges who ruled.

After reading the appellate legal opinion, write a 2- to 3-page paper addressing the following: Discuss whether either of the expert witnesses in this case acted unethically. Support your opinion with the relevant APA or specialty ethical guidelines. Indicate whether you agree with the majority decision or the minority concurring or dissenting opinion. Explain why.

The paper should be in APA style.

                                  Reading  material

Present: All the Justices COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA*  v.  Record No. 041454
RICHARD BRYAN ALLEN

          OPINION BY
JUSTICE LAWRENCE L. KOONTZ, JR.
        March 3, 2005

          FROM THE CIRCUIT COURT OF THE CITY OF ALEXANDRIA
               Alfred D. Swersky, Judge Designate
    Pursuant to Code § 37.1-70.6(A), the Commonwealth
petitioned the Circuit Court of the City of Alexandria to
civilly commit Richard Bryan Allen as a sexually violent
predator.  Following a hearing, the trial court sitting without
a jury determined that the Commonwealth had not met its burden
of proving by clear and convincing evidence that Allen is a
sexually violent predator.  Accordingly, the trial court
dismissed the Commonwealth’s petition.  The Commonwealth appeals
from this judgment, contending that the trial court erred in
admitting the testimony of Allen’s expert witness, a
psychologist who is not licensed to practice in Virginia.  The
Commonwealth further contends that the trial court erred in
finding that the Commonwealth had not met its burden of proof.

* In the trial court this case was styled “Jerry W. Kilgore, Attorney General of Virginia, ex rel. Commonwealth of Virginia v. Richard Bryan Allen.” We have amended the style of the case to reflect that the Commonwealth is the real party in interest, not a relator. See Townes v. Commonwealth, 269 Va. ___, ___ n.*, ___ S.E.2d ___, ___ n.* (2005) (today decided). 

                              BACKGROUND
    On January 19, 1983, Allen was convicted of the aggravated
sexual battery of an eight-year-old girl and a nine-year-old
girl.  Allen was sentenced to ten years’ imprisonment for each
offense, with the sentences to run consecutively.
    Allen was released on parole on September 13, 2001.  Within
days of his release, however, Allen violated the conditions of
his parole and was returned to prison to serve the remainder of
his sentence.  On July 9, 2003, as required by Code § 37.1-
70.4(C), the Director of the Virginia Department of Corrections
notified the Commitment Review Committee (CRC) that Allen, who
was scheduled to be released from prison on September 14, 2003,
was subject to review for commitment because he was incarcerated
for a sexually violent offense and had been identified through a
preliminary screening test as being likely to re-offend.  As
required by Code § 37.1-70.5(B), the CRC referred Allen to Dr.
Ronald M. Boggio, Ph.D., a licensed clinical psychologist, for
evaluation.  Following receipt of Dr. Boggio’s evaluation
report, the CRC completed its assessment of Allen and, on August
7, 2003, forwarded to the Attorney General a recommendation that

2 

   the Commonwealth seek to have Allen committed to a secure mental
health facility as a sexually violent predator.
    On August 14, 2003, the Commonwealth filed in the trial
court a petition for the civil commitment of Allen as a sexually
violent predator.  The trial court appointed counsel to
represent Allen, Code § 37.1-70.2, and, upon Allen’s motion,
ordered that funds be provided for a mental health expert to aid
in Allen’s defense, Code § 37.1-70.8.  Thereafter, the trial
court conducted a hearing as required by Code § 37.1-70.7.  The
trial court determined that there was probable cause to believe
that Allen is a sexually violent predator and ordered that Allen
be held in custody until a full hearing on the Commonwealth’s
petition could be conducted.  Although permitted by Code § 37.1-
70.9(B), neither Allen nor the Commonwealth requested a jury
trial on the commitment petition.

On December 12, 2003, the trial court conducted a trial on the Commonwealth’s petition.1 The Commonwealth presented evidence from Carmen Baylor, the custodian of records for the Greensville Correctional Center where Allen had been 

1 Code § 37.1-70.9 requires that the trial be conducted within 90 days of the determination of probable cause under Code § 37.1-70.7. In a continuance order entered October 30, 2003, Allen waived his objection to the ninety-day requirement. 

3 

incarcerated. Baylor testified that while incarcerated Allen had committed 246 institutional infractions, including 15 for assault, four for indecent exposure, most recently in January 2003, and one instance of having consensual sex with another inmate.2      Barbara Ward, a senior probation/parole officer with the
Alexandria Adult Probation/Parole Office testified for the
Commonwealth that she was assigned to supervise Allen’s parole
following his initial release from prison on September 13, 2001.
Ward testified that she explained the rules of his parole to
Allen, and that he acknowledged his agreement to abide by them.
Nonetheless, Allen was late for his next meeting with Ward on
September 17, 2001 and failed to appear for the next subsequent
meeting.
    Ward testified she learned that Allen had been seen with a
young woman with Down’s Syndrome who was referring to Allen as

2 Allen has not assigned cross-error to the admission of evidence concerning non-sexual institutional infractions or the total number of infractions. Accordingly, we express no opinion on the admissibility of that evidence and will consider its weight in reviewing the trial court’s final judgment. But see McCloud v. Commonwealth, 269 Va. ___, ___, ___ S.E.2d ___, ___ (2005) (holding that trial court did not abuse its discretion in limiting introduction of such evidence in a jury trial on the Commonwealth’s petition to commit a prisoner as a sexually violent predator). 

4 

   her “boyfriend.”  After Allen was arrested for violating the
terms of his parole by failing to meet with Ward, Ward went to
Allen’s room at the halfway house where he had been staying and
discovered that he had come into possession of a pornographic
magazine.
    Dr. Boggio, the psychologist who had performed the pre-
release evaluation of Allen for the CRC, testified as the
Commonwealth’s mental health expert.  Dr. Boggio principally
based his testimony upon the personal interview and tests he had
conducted during his evaluation of Allen.  Dr. Boggio testified
that Allen recounted a lengthy history of behavioral problems
from an early age, including setting fires, police
confrontations, and hitting other children and teachers.  Allen
was suspended from the New York City public schools as a result
of his violence, and lived as a runaway for a period of time.
    Dr. Boggio further testified that Allen bragged about the
extent of his violent behavior and expressed no remorse.   Allen
told Dr. Boggio that ever since Allen was a child he had been
known for having a “temper problem” and for being easily
angered.  When Allen was a teenager, he pulled a knife on a
female co-worker who referred to him with a racial slur.

5 

       According to Dr. Boggio, Allen had a long history of
psychiatric care that began as a juvenile, including both in-
patient and out-patient treatment.  Allen was expelled for
fighting from the Commonwealth Center for Children &
Adolescents, then known as the DeJarnette Center, an acute care
mental health facility operated by the Virginia Department of
Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services.
Dr. Boggio also reviewed the pre-sentence investigation from
Allen’s convictions for aggravated sexual battery, which
revealed that his behavioral problems began at age four-and-a-
half, including disruptive and aggressive behavior, and later
included sexually inappropriate behavior.  Allen also reported
13 suicide attempts, beginning at age 13.  Dr. Boggio also
testified that the official records indicated Allen had
diagnoses of the depressive disorder spectrum as well as
antisocial personality disorder (APD) and polysubstance
dependence.  At least two of Allen’s institutional charges were
for possession or use of alcohol or illegal substances.
    Allen reported to Dr. Boggio that his first sexual
experience was intercourse with two girls when he was 16; one
girl was between 11 and 13 years of age and the other was 13 or
14.  Allen also told Dr. Boggio that he had an on-going sexual

6 

   relationship with an eleven-year-old girl when he was seventeen.
Allen also claimed to have had a sexual relationship with the
mother of his two victims, and admitted that he had engaged in
homosexual activity while in prison.  Allen claimed never to
have been “in love” with anyone despite having had many
different relationships.
    Dr. Boggio testified that Allen claimed he thought his
nine-year-old victim was twelve, because she was “very
developed.”  He also claimed that the nine-year-old victim
initiated the sexual encounter.  He denied having assaulted the
eight-year-old victim.  Dr. Boggio found it important to note
that Allen had no immediate post-abuse feelings about himself,
the victims, or his behavior other than to deny involvement, and
that Allen expressed no remorse for the victims.  Similarly,
Allen denied responsibility for the infractions he committed
while incarcerated.
     Dr. Boggio diagnosed Allen with APD, dysthymic disorder,
and polysubstance dependence.  Dr. Boggio testified, reading
from the American Psychiatric Association, Diagnostic and
Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, (4th ed. Revised text
2000), regarding APD:
    In order to meet this diagnosis, one has to have three
    of the following:  Failure to conform to social norms

7 

       with respect to lawful behaviors, as indicated by
    repeatedly performing acts that are grounds for arrest
    . . . deceitfulness, as indicated by repeated lying,
    use of aliases, or conning others for personal profit
    or pleasure . . . impulsivity or failure to plan ahead
    . . . irritability and aggressiveness, as indicated by
    repeated physical fights or assaults . . . reckless
    disregard for the safety of self or others . . .
    consistent irresponsibility, as indicated by repeated
    failure to sustain consistent work behavior or honor
    financial obligations . . . lack of remorse, as
    indicated by being indifferent to or rationalizing
    having hurt, mistreated, or stolen from another.
    Additionally, the individual has to be at least 18
    years of age and has evidence of conduct disorder with
    onset before age 15.
Dr. Boggio testified that Allen met all of these criteria, with
the possible exception of failing to maintain a consistent work
history.
     Based on tests he administered to Allen, Dr. Boggio
testified that Allen has a composite IQ score of 103, plus or
minus 6 points, indicating that Allen is of average
intelligence.  Dr. Boggio also had Allen complete the Millon
Clinical Multiaxial Inventory-III (MCMI-III).  Dr. Boggio
testified that Allen’s responses to the MCMI-III showed that he
has longstanding personality defects with no coping mechanisms,
meaning that Allen would repeat problem behaviors over and over
again, despite the consequences.
    Dr. Boggio also had Allen complete the Hare Psychopathy
Checklist Revised (Hare), an instrument designed to measure
                                  8

   psychopathic behaviors.  Allen’s score on this test placed him
in approximately the 90th percentile of incarcerated
individuals, suggesting a strong indication of a psychopathy to
take advantage of and manipulate people without regard to their
feelings or thoughts, and a tendency not to show remorse for
this behavior.  Dr. Boggio found the results of the Hare test
correlated with all the things that Allen had said during their
interview.

Dr. Boggio also administered the Static-99, a test used to predict sex offender recidivism, to Allen. According to Dr. Boggio, Allen’s scores on this test predicted that Allen would have a 33% likelihood of committing another sexual offense after 5 years following his release from prison, a 38% likelihood after 10 years, and a 40% likelihood after 15 years. Using a formula to extrapolate beyond 15 years, Dr. Boggio concluded that Allen would have a 62.7% likelihood of recidivism after 25 years. On the Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offender Recidivism test, Dr. Boggio scored Allen with a 36.9% chance of reconviction in 10 years, and a 60.8% likelihood of reconviction in 25 years.3 Dr. Boggio also testified that these tests rely 

3 Dr. Boggio explained that there is a difference between recidivism, that is the committing of a crime without regard to 

9 

   upon actuarial predictions and do not purport to satisfy
completely the issue the tester “is being asked to predict.”
    Dr. Boggio testified that in his opinion Allen is likely to
re-offend in the future because of an inability to control those
impulses that arise because of his personality disorder.  Dr.
Boggio noted that Allen’s lack of concern for others and his
tendency to act compulsively and without remorse make Allen much
more likely to be a repeat offender because he fails to see the
importance of respecting the rights of others.
    Dr. Boggio did not diagnose Allen as a pedophile, but
opined that Allen has a tendency to act to satisfy his own needs
and a “belief that people can be manipulated and that people can
be taken advantage of.”  Dr. Boggio testified that this
“predatory behavior” puts children as well as individuals with
impaired cognitive functioning at risk because they are easily
manipulated.
    In conclusion, Dr. Boggio testified that in his opinion
Allen needed in-patient treatment in a secure mental health
facility.  He opined that out-patient treatment would not be
appropriate because Allen has had no sex offender treatment
whether the subject is arrested and convicted, and reconviction,
that is actually being convicted for an offense.

10 

   while in prison, has no awareness that he needs help, was unable
to follow rules while on parole, and has a long history of not
being able to follow rules.
    Dr. Timothy P. Foley, Ph.D., testified as an expert witness
for Allen.  Dr. Foley is a psychologist licensed in Pennsylvania
and New Jersey.  Although not licensed to practice in Virginia,
Dr. Foley contacted the Virginia Board of Psychology and
obtained permission to perform an evaluation of Allen in
Virginia.
    To establish Dr. Foley’s qualifications as an expert, Allen
elicited testimony from Dr. Foley concerning his background and
experience in the field of treating sexually violent persons.
Dr. Foley testified that he had previously evaluated
approximately 250 sexually violent predators for the courts and
as a defense expert and had testified in over 200 such cases.
Dr. Foley further testified that currently he is employed by
federal district courts in both Pennsylvania and New Jersey to
assess and treat sexual offenders.  He previously was the
supervisor of the sexual offender program at a state prison in
Pennsylvania for two years.  Dr. Foley’s curriculum vitae, which
was admitted into evidence, showed that he is a member of the
Association for the Treatment of Sexual Abusers and has

11 

   published numerous articles concerning treatment of sexual
offenders.  Dr. Foley testified that he is familiar with the
statutory standards that apply to proceedings for the commitment
of sexually violent predators in Virginia.
    The Commonwealth objected to Dr. Foley being qualified as
an expert witness, asserting that “he’s not licensed in this
state or familiar with the state standards.”  The trial court
overruled the Commonwealth’s objection.
    Dr. Foley testified that he had reviewed Allen’s
institutional file from the Department of Corrections and other
reports.  Dr. Foley also administered various tests to Allen
including the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 and
the Abel Screen.  Dr. Foley testified that the Abel Screen is a
valid, reliable test to determine sexual preferences and
abnormal interests.  Dr. Foley concurred in Dr. Boggio’s
conclusion that Allen was not a pedophile, but opined that he
has a “socially deviant” interest in sexually mature underage
females.  Dr. Foley characterized this as “a common finding
among heterosexual males.”
    Dr. Foley administered a longer version of the Hare
Psychopathy Checklist to Allen.  Dr. Foley testified that Allen
received a prorated score of 26.7, which is not indicative of a

12 

   psychopathic classification.  Dr. Foley testified that the most
robust predictors of sexual offense recidivism are measured
sexual deviance and evidence of psychopathy, and that Allen
scored below the range of the psychopathy cutoff.
    Dr. Foley testified that he also administered the Static-99
to Allen and that the results were comparable to those achieved
when Dr. Boggio administered that test.  While Dr. Foley agreed
with Dr. Boggio’s general assessment of the results of the
Static-99 with regard to the likelihood that Allen would re-
offend, he characterized that result as meaning “there is less
than half a chance that Allen would be a recidivist [after] 15
years.”  Dr. Foley further qualified his assessment of the
Static-99 results by stating that the base population for the
test were adults who “had committed offenses as adults and had
been on the street for a period of time,” whereas Allen had been
a juvenile at the time of his original offenses and “has never
been on the street as an adult.”
    Dr. Foley agreed with Dr. Boggio’s assessment that Allen
suffers from APD.  Dr. Foley testified that while Allen’s
antisocial personality traits “[p]robably . . . will remain for
the rest of [his] life,” his “propensity to act them out will
decrease with age.”  Moreover, it was Dr. Foley’s opinion that

13 

   Allen “did not . . . suffer[] from an inability to control his
sexual impulses.”  Dr. Foley testified that in his opinion
Allen’s personality disorder does not predispose him to commit
sexually violent offenses.
    On rebuttal, Dr. Boggio testified that he disagreed with
Dr. Foley’s opinion regarding Allen’s propensity to re-offend.
While Dr. Boggio agreed that Allen’s propensity to act on his
sexual impulses would decrease, he opined that Allen would
remain at risk for re-offending throughout his life.
    Dr. Boggio disagreed with Dr. Foley’s use of the Abel
Screen as a predictor of sexual preferences and abnormal
interests.  He testified that published reliability data suggest
that the Abel Screen is not accurate.  Dr. Boggio further
testified that several state and federal courts have held that
the Abel Screen is not scientifically reliable.
    Dr. Boggio also disagreed with Dr. Foley’s assumption that
psychopathy is the most robust predictor of recidivism.  Dr.
Boggio opined that sexual deviance and antisocial lifestyle are
more predictive of a person’s future actions, and that
psychopathy is just one part of the equation.
    Dr. Boggio reiterated his opinion that, in light of Allen’s
APD, his demonstrated history of antisocial offending, and his

14 

   convictions for predatory sexual offenses, Allen is likely to
re-offend in the future.  Dr. Boggio opined that this likelihood
is more than 50% based on all the actuarial data.
    In its summation, the trial court noted that “each of the
experts [were] both well-qualified, both well-prepared, and
convincing.”  Thus, although it expressed “a very, very
generalized fear of releasing Mr. Allen on the public,” the
trial court ruled that the Commonwealth had not proven by clear
and convincing evidence that Allen is likely to engage in
sexually violent acts in the future.  Accordingly, the trial
court dismissed the Commonwealth’s petition to have Allen
civilly committed as a sexually violent predator.
    On February 18, 2004, the Commonwealth filed a motion to
reconsider.  The Commonwealth renewed its objection to the trial
court’s ruling permitting Dr. Foley to testify as an expert
witness because he is not licensed to practice in Virginia.  The
Commonwealth further contended that Dr. Foley’s evaluation of
Allen was based on “an incorrect standard” that would require
proof that a prisoner is incapable of controlling his sexually
violent impulses, rather than proof that a prisoner is likely to
re-offend.

15 

       On March 24, 2004, the trial court entered an order denying
the Commonwealth’s motion to reconsider.  In that same order,
the trial court reiterated its prior ruling that the
Commonwealth had not proven by clear and convincing evidence
that Allen “is a sexually violent predator within the meaning of
Virginia Code Section 37.1-70.1, et seq.”  Accordingly, the
trial court dismissed the Commonwealth’s petition and ordered
that Allen be unconditionally released.  This appeal followed.
                           DISCUSSION
    This case, along with Townes v. Commonwealth, 269 Va. ___,
___ S.E.2d ___ (2005) (today decided) and McCloud v.
Commonwealth, 269 Va. ___, ___ S.E.2d ___ (2005) (today
decided), involves the procedures required to be followed in
order for the Commonwealth to have a prisoner who has been
convicted of a sexually violent offense declared to be a
sexually violent predator and to have that prisoner
involuntarily committed to a secure mental health facility upon
his release from prison.  Those procedures are set out in
Chapter 2, Article 1.1 of Title 37.1, commonly referred to as
the Sexually Violent Predators Act (SVPA).  Code §§ 37.1-70.1
through 37.1-70.19.  We have reviewed those procedures in some

16 

   detail in McCloud and need not do so again here.  This case
presents issues not addressed in Townes or McCloud.

We first address the Commonwealth’s contention that the trial court erred in permitting Dr. Foley to qualify as an expert witness at trial because he is not licensed to practice in Virginia. At the time the trial court granted Allen’s motion for funds to employ Dr. Foley as an expert, Code § 37.1-70.8(A) (Supp. 2003) provided:4           Any person who is the subject of a petition under
    this article shall have, prior to trial, the right to
    employ experts at his own expense to perform
    examinations and testify on his behalf.  However, if a
    person has not employed an expert and requests expert
    assistance, the judge shall appoint such experts as he
    deems necessary to perform examinations and
    participate in the trial on the person’s behalf.

4 In 2004, Code § 37.1-70.8(A) was amended and now requires that any expert appointed to assist a defendant “shall have the qualifications required by subsection B of § 37.1-70.5.” See Acts 2004, ch. 764. Code § 37.1-70.5(B) sets the qualifications for the professional designated by the CRC to perform the mental health examination of a prisoner identified as being subject to the SVPA and provides that the examination must be conducted by “a licensed psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist, designated by the Commissioner of the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services.” A further provision of the amended version of Code § 37.1-70.8(A) provides that a privately employed expert need only be “a licensed psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist.” Because this amendment did not come into force until after Allen’s trial, we express no opinion on its effect or validity. 

17 

       Where a statute designates express qualifications for an
expert witness, the witness must satisfy the statutory criteria
in order to testify as an expert.  See Hinkley v. Koehler, 269
Va. 82, 87, 606 S.E.2d ___, ___ (2005); Perdieu v. Blackstone
Family Practice Ctr., Inc., 264 Va. 408, 419, 568 S.E.2d 703,
709 (2002); Sami v. Varn, 260 Va. 280, 283, 535 S.E.2d 172, 174
(2000).  Nothing in Code § 37.1-70.8(A), as applicable at the
time of Allen’s trial, or elsewhere in the SVPA expressly
requires or by implication suggests that a mental health expert
employed or appointed to assist a prisoner must be licensed to
practice in Virginia.  In the absence of express statutory
requirements for the qualification of an expert witness in this
particular type of proceeding, we will apply the general rules
applicable to expert testimony in other civil cases.  See Code
§ 8.01-401.3.
    The sole purpose of permitting expert testimony is to
assist the trier of fact to understand the evidence presented or
to determine a fact in issue.  Id.; Santen v. Tuthill, 265 Va.
492, 498, 578 S.E.2d 788, 792 (2003); John v. Im, 263 Va. 315,
319, 559 S.E.2d 694, 696 (2002).  Generally, a witness is
qualified to testify as an expert when the witness possesses
sufficient knowledge, skill, or experience to make the witness

18 

   competent to testify as an expert on the subject matter at
issue.  See Sami, 260 Va. at 284, 535 S.E.2d at 174; Noll v.
Rahal, 219 Va. 795, 800, 250 S.E.2d 741, 744 (1979).  “In
essence, all that is necessary for a witness to qualify as an
expert is that the witness have sufficient knowledge of the
subject to give value to the witness’s opinion.”  Velazquez v.
Commonwealth, 263 Va. 95, 103, 557 S.E.2d 213, 218 (2002).
Without question, Dr. Foley’s education, employment experience,
and professional knowledge and skill with respect to the
identification and treatment of sexually violent offenders
qualified him to render an opinion that would assist the trial
court.
    The Commonwealth contends, however, that the trial court
further erred in not rejecting Dr. Foley’s testimony and
granting the Commonwealth’s motion to reconsider because his
testimony was based on an improper standard, thus demonstrating
that he lacked a sufficient appreciation of the requirements for
finding that Allen is a sexually violent predator under the
SVPA.  We disagree.
    “The admission of expert testimony is committed to the
sound discretion of the trial judge, and we will [reject] a
trial court’s decision only where that court has abused its

19 

   discretion.”  Brown v. Corbin, 244 Va. 528, 531, 423 S.E.2d 176,
178 (1992); see also Hinkley, 269 Va. at 91, 606 S.E.2d at ___.
Similarly, when the admission of expert witness testimony is
challenged in a post-trial proceeding, the determination whether
that testimony was properly received is a matter committed to
the trial court’s discretion.  When the admissibility of the
expert’s testimony is subsequently challenged on appeal, that
testimony must be viewed as a whole.  See Hussen v.
Commonwealth, 257 Va. 93, 99, 511 S.E.2d 106, 109 (1999).
    While the Commonwealth can point to isolated statements in
Dr. Foley’s testimony and in his written evaluation of Allen
that do not track the precise language of the definition of a
sexually violent predator in the SVPA, it also is clear that Dr.
Foley was aware of that standard.  Indeed, in his written
evaluation Dr. Foley quotes language from Code § 37.1-70.1
defining the standard almost verbatim.  Moreover, even if we
were to agree w

C05 Online Exam 1_02 Score 100%

Question 1 

__________ is the quality of being unambiguous and easy to understand.  

A. Appropriateness 

B. Representativeness 

C. Substitutability 

D. Clarity

Question 2 

In which of the following is an oral communication method required?

A. writing news articles 

B. updating Facebook statuses 

C. participating in teleconferences 

D. updating wikis

Question 3 

__________ arise from conflicts between verbal and nonverbal communication.

A. Mixed messages 

B. Semantic barriers 

C. Psychological barriers 

D. Language barriers

Question 4 

Which of the following is a form of social media?

A. performance reports 

B. company newsletter 

C. Twitter 

D. industry journals

Question 5 

__________ arise from language that is ambiguous or difficult to understand.

A. Psychological barriers 

B. Semantic barriers 

C. Language barriers 

D. Physiological barriers

Question 6 

__________ is an example of communication.

A. Planning the plotline of a book that you intend to write 

B. Setting a reminder text on your cell phone 

C. Updating your status on a social networking site 

D. Listening to classic tunes on an MP3 player

Question 7 

A good communicator __________.  

A. knows about all technologies and their uses. 

B. knows that all technology choices can be used interchangeably. 

C. understands that social media are inappropriate for business communication. 

D. thinks about the implications of technology options and uses his or her choices wisely.

Question 8 

Which of the following considerations is relevant to the adaptable characteristic of effective business communicators?

A. What do I want to accomplish with my message? 

B. With whom should I communicate to accomplish my goal? 

C. Is my message understandable within other cultures? 

D. Is my message clear and concise?

Question 9 

Which of the following statements about technology is true?

A. Technology increases the distance between communicators. 

B. Technology allows an immediate exchange of information across many miles and time zones. 

C. Technology does not change very rapidly. 

D. Technology is not prey to pitfalls since it eliminates the risk of failed communication.

Question 10 

Which of the following terms refers to the process of putting your message into words, images, or actions?

A. transmitting

B. encoding

C. receiving

D. interpreting

Question 11 

Which of the following would be best for transmitting a message to and receiving a response from one or more people?

A. performance reports 

B. company newsletters 

C. email

D. industry journals

Question 12 

Padma is asked if she knows how to make a red wine reduction. Padma looks down at her feet, quietly mumbles “sure,” and starts wringing her hands. When the job of making the red wine reduction is assigned to someone else, Padma is confused, as she had answered affirmatively that she knew how to do it. Which of the following is the best explanation of what happened here?  

A. A psychological barrier has obstructed communication; by mumbling her reply, Padma signaled that she was offended by the request. 

B. A semantic barrier has occurred; since Padma answered “sure” instead of “yes,” her answer was confusing. 

C. A physiological barrier has obstructed communication; by wringing her hands, Padma has given the impression that they hurt and that she cannot perform the task. 

D. A mixed message has obstructed communication; Padma’s verbal and nonverbal responses communicate different things.

Question 13 

In the context of doing business with people from other cultures, effective communicators __________.

A. memorize a list of cultural differences between countries. 

B. are ready to adapt to different cultural needs. 

C. ignore cultural differences and treat everyone equally. 

D. treat others as they would like to be treated.

Question 14 

You are collaborating on a report with a co-worker and want to send him the latest version of your document. Which of the following statements is true regarding collaborating in this case?

A. Typing out the report and mailing it to your colleague by post would be the fastest way of delivering the report. 

B. Uploading the document to the company intranet will deliver it to your co-worker’s mailbox. 

C. Discussing the changes on a public blog is the best way to share and explore the document. 

D. Using a team wiki will allow both of you to constantly update the document within a shared space.

Question 15 

Just as you’re about to shut down your computer for the day, you remember that you need to send an update to your boss. You dash off a quick email and press “send” without spell-checking or proofing it. Doing so __________.

A.  is fine since this is not a formal report 

B. is the right approach, since email does not require proofreading 

C. is a bad idea, since you need to use correct grammar in all of your messages 

D. is correct because an email needs to be as short as possible

Question 16 

__________ means that a message uses no more words than are necessary to accomplish its purpose.  

A. Clarity 

B. Appropriateness 

C. Substitutability 

D. Conciseness

Question 17 

You joined a team just as it was finishing up a large and much-anticipated project at your company, and you feel a little insecure as its newest member—and the one who contributed the least to the project. At the next staff meeting, your boss thanks you for all your hard work in making the project a success. Instead of this making you feel good, you feel even more uncomfortable, interpreting the comment as a sarcastic remark about how little you actually participated in the project. This is an example of a __________.

A. psychological barrier. 

B. semantic barrier. 

C. language barrier. 

D. physiological barrier.

Question 18 

The communication skills you already possess __________ in the workplace.

A. may hamper your attempts to communicate 

B. don’t apply to communication 

C. are sufficient to meet every challenge of communication 

D. will be valuable to you for communicating

Question 19 

Caroline knows that, while her oral presentation skills are stellar, her writing style could use a bit of work. Which of the following would be the best medium for Caroline to communicate in effectively?

A. a podcast 

B. a wiki 

C. a blog 

D. a text chat

Question 20 

Cultural sensitivity __________.

A. applies only to international communication. 

B. deals exclusively with people who are non-native English speakers. 

C. does not refer to cultural differences among people of different ages. 

D. may apply to cultural differences between people of different genders.

C05 Online Exam 2_03 Score 100 percent

Question 1 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following is a question that is recommended to ask when analyzing your audience?

A. Why will they be interested in what you are saying? 

B. What objectives do you want to achieve with your communication? 

C. How quickly can the speech be completed? 

D. What are the points that you do not want to communicate?

Question 2 of 205.0 Points

When nonverbal signals reinforce your words, __________.

A. your listeners remember what you say better 

B. your audience will lack confidence in your words 

C. your nonverbal communication carries less weight than your words 

D. you undermine your persuasiveness

Question 3 of 205.0 Points

__________ involves analyzing the meaning of what you hear, read, or see to determine its intention.  

A. Passive listening 

B. Telecommuting 

C. Listening comprehension 

D. Interpretation

Question 4 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following nonverbal gestures would most likely indicate your happy willingness to assist someone?

A. sighing

B. looking away from him/her 

C. muttering under your breath 

D. pulling out a chair for him/her

Question 5 of 205.0 Points

On your first day at a new job you receive an email asking you to submit your SBDs by Friday so that they can be vetted for inclusion in the new module. You need to ask for clarification as you aren’t sure of what is being asked of you. This is an example of a barrier to __________.

A. passive listening 

B. active listening 

C. listening comprehension 

D. interpretation

Question 6 of 205.0 Points

People who collaborate __________.

A. need to recognize that they may be motivated by different goals 

B. cannot function unless they have different goals 

C. rarely have conflicts arise due to working with different goals in mind 

D. need to find solutions that address only one goal

Question 7 of 205.0 Points

Using a strong and positive tone of voice __________.

A. will undermine your persuasiveness 

B. will come across as arrogant, and is not recommended 

C. will make your audience receptive to your ideas 

D. will cause you to sound hesitant

Question 8 of 205.0 Points

Body language, posture, and gestures __________.

A. reveal little about the attitude of the speaker 

B. can help you interpret attitudes without listening to any words 

C. only express attitudes of shame or uncertainty 

D. should be interpreted without regard for facial expressions

Question 9 of 205.0 Points

You need help on a project, so you approach a colleague and find him busily doing his own work. When you approach him to ask for help, __________.

A. begin by describing your project in great detail, so your co-worker will know exactly what he is getting into. 

B. you should expect that he is already prepared to listen. 

C. briefly describe what you want so that he understands why you are communicating. 

D. do not address any possible objections that might make your co-worker say no to your request.

Question 10 of 205.0 Points

Passive listening means __________.

A. focusing attentively on what a speaker says. 

B. hearing information without actively paying attention to ensure understanding. 

C. actively working to understand the information a speaker is providing. 

D. trying to interpret the information presented by a speaker.

Question 11 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following statements best phrases a negative comment positively?

A. You don’t have an eye for detail, but you really do have a great sense of the big picture. 

B. You do a good job of visualizing the big picture, and you’d be even more effective if you improved your attention to detail. 

C. I don’t know anyone better than you at seeing the big picture, but you could really stand to improve your attention to detail. 

D. You need to improve your attention to detail, but you’re already wonderful at seeing the big picture.

Question 12 of 205.0 Points

As you’re packing up to leave the office on a Friday afternoon, your boss tells you that she’d like a status report from you as soon as possible. You head out for the weekend and complete the status report first thing Monday morning. When your boss receives it, she complains that she needed it sooner. What is the most likely cause of this breakdown in communication?

A. passive listening 

B. failure to listen actively 

C. barriers to listening comprehension 

D. difference of interpretation

Question 13 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following is an example of a difficulty in listening comprehension?

A. not hearing what an ER doctor says because an ambulance outside is blaring its siren 

B. not understanding what an ER doctor means when he says you are suffering from hypertension 

C. not hearing what an ER doctor says because of the conversations and cries of pain in the waiting area 

D. not listening to what an ER doctor says because you’re distracted by a new patient who has just been wheeled into the room

Question 14 of 205.0 Points

A company sends one of its junior executives to meet with the CEO of another company. The CEO is insulted that someone of equal rank was not sent. Which of the following is most likely true?

A. The junior executive’s company’s employees are granted respect based on their positions alone. 

B. The junior executive’s company is very formal and hierarchical. 

C. The CEO’s company believes in social equality. 

D. The CEO’s company has a clear separation between superiors and subordinates.

Question 15 of 205.0 Points

Your audience will be more likely to remember what you say in which of the following situations?

A. smiling as you reveal declining sales figures 

B. frowning while you explain a serious matter 

C. pacing as you ensure your audience that there is no cause for alarm 

D. sounding hesitant as you describe a reorganization plan

Question 16 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following is one of the categories of active listening skills?

A. describing

B. evaluating

C. implying

D. interrupting

Question 17 of 205.0 Points

Ella receives an email from her co-worker Mitsuko in Japan. Mitsuko tells Ella that she will not be able to visit her in the U.S. offices as she had hoped to, and includes an emoticon to express her sadness. Which of the following emoticons did Mitsuko most likely use in her email?

A. (;_;) 

B. 🙁 

C. o.o

D. :-0

Question 18 of 205.0 Points

Carol approaches a co-worker, shaking her head as she does so. With a frown on her face, she angrily asks, “Did you finish the report yet?” Based on this situation, which of the following represents verbal communication?

A. shaking head 

B. frowning

C. using those specific words 

D. using an angry tone of voice

Question 19 of 205.0 Points

Paraphrasing to ensure understanding __________.

A. means asking straightforward questions about what was said 

B. involves repeating exactly what you heard in order to make sure you didn’t mishear anything 

C.  is less complicated than asking questions 

D. can help you understand the emotional content behind a statement

Question 20 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following is an environmental hearing distraction?

A. a car alarm being set off 

B. a ringing sound in one’s ears after attending a loud concert 

C. blocked ears due to a cold 

D. inability to focus due to a migraine

C05 Online Exam 3_05 Score 100 Percent

Question 1 

You have completed a research project and have come up with some interesting and persuasive content. Although your ideas are spot-on, the format of your final report is difficult to read and a little confusing. This __________.

A. is problematic, as it will undermine your credibility 

B. communicates to your audience that you are professional 

C. is irrelevant, as the strength of your content will still shine through 

D. won’t affect the reception of your report, as formatting is only a very minor issue

Question 2 

When you stare at a blank page or a blank computer monitor without a clue of how to begin a composition, you are __________.

A. engaging in free writing 

B. suffering from writer’s block 

C. struggling with the perfectionist syndrome 

D. thinking aloud

Question 3 

If the purpose of your message is to inform parents about the new dismissal procedure designed to alleviate problems with the current process at your school, which of the following best represents the desired outcome of your message?

A. that parents will analyze the situation themselves 

B. that parents will be willing to help 

C. that parents will want to improve their children’s experiences 

D. that parents will follow the new process you are implementing

Question 4 

Which would be the best way to persuade your boss to implement a flex-time schedule in your office?

A. provide research that shows that this arrangement is workable and often results in increased productivity 

B. give the boss the names of the employees who would be interested in working a flex-time schedule 

C. tell the boss how happy it would make you to have the flexibility to accommodate your personal interests 

D. inform the boss about the many leisure activities that employees would be able to engage in if the flex-time schedule were implemented

Question 5 

The final step of the ACE process, evaluating, includes __________.

A. drafting your message 

B. analyzing your audience 

C. selecting the best medium 

D. considering feedback

Question 6 

Starting in September, your company plans to increase the monthly fees it charges to its clients. You are drafting a letter to mail to your clients to inform them of this increase, and hopefully to persuade them to keep their business with you. In analyzing your audience you determine that __________.

A. the clients need to be made aware of the fees they currently pay 

B. the clients need to know how your company will use the revenue from the fees 

C. the clients don’t need any information until September since that is when the increase will go into effect 

D. the clients need to be told what the new fee structure is

Question 7 

Which of the following is done in the first step of ACE?

A. analyzing the purpose 

B. organizing content 

C. revising the content 

D. formatting conventions

Question 8 

Reviewing your message and considering feedback __________.

A. generally leads to less successful proposals 

B. may lead you to reconsider the decisions concerning content, audience, and medium 

C. is part of composing, the second step of the ACE process 

D. will be time-consuming and unnecessary

Question 9 

When selecting a medium for a message, email __________.

A. is not efficient for disseminating information to many people 

B. ensures immediate feedback 

C. may not be appropriate for sending sensitive content 

D. cannot create a permanent record

Question 10 

Business emails __________.

A. should focus on only one topic 

B. should contain only one paragraph 

C. should not contain bullet points 

D. should use generic headings

Question 11 

Brief messages, such as emails or short presentations at meetings, __________.

A. require elaborate outlines 

B. require the use of a tree chart in order to be outlined properly 

C. do not benefit from the outlining process 

D. might only need a few bullet points or questions as their outlines

Question 12 

Which of the following does composing involve?  

A. proofreading

B. revising

C. organizing content 

D. determining the purpose of the message

Question 13 

Which of the following statements about revising a written communication is true?

A. The first draft will never include incomplete thoughts. 

B. The first draft rarely contains awkward sentences. 

C. Written communication provides the opportunity to revise your message as you are communicating it based on immediate feedback. 

D. By the time you get to the end of your first draft you may have discovered new ideas about what to say.

Question 14 

Keeping your purpose and desired outcome in mind as you write your message is most likely to help you evaluate whether your content __________.

A. supports your goal 

B. is formatted correctly 

C. is using the appropriate font style 

D. has any spelling errors

Question 15 

When conducting the audience analysis for a persuasive message, which of the following is one of the recommended questions to consider?

A. How should you organize the persuasive message? 

B. What information does the audience need to know and why? 

C. How should I design the format and delivery? 

D. Does the content ensure complete information?

Question 16 

The first draft of a message focuses on __________.

A. analyzing your audience 

B. getting your thoughts on paper 

C. evaluating your word choices 

D. perfecting your grammar

Question 17 

A letter would be appropriate for which of the following situations?

A. sending a list of the year’s public holidays to all employees 

B. alerting employees that a flex-time schedule is going into effect 

C. communicating news to a client 

D. sending the project schedule to a team

Question 18 

Which of the following key decisions is involved in composing?

A. What must be the purpose of the message? 

B. Which mode of communication must be used? 

C. How can the content be revised effectively? 

D. How can the format be designed for the best effect?

Question 19 

You receive a flyer in the mail telling you about the new and improved cleaning power of Brite laundry detergent. Which of the following is most likely to be the purpose of this message?

A. document the scientific advances in the manufacturing of laundry detergent 

B. describe the technology that led to the new formula for Brite

C. congratulateBrite’s research department on its achievements 

D. persuade customers to buy Brite

Question 20 

In the ACE process for communication, the second step is __________.

A. composing

B. cutting

C. collaborating

D. copying

C05 Online Exam 5_08 Score 100 percent

Question 1 

Which of the following statements would be best to include in a letter turning down someone who applied for a job?

A. We are sorry to inform you that your credentials were not as impressive as those of the other candidates who applied for the position. 

B. We think that you are talented, but feel the position would best be filled by a younger, more vibrant candidate. 

C. Unfortunately, we were more impressed by the other candidates. 

D. After much consideration, we have offered the position to another candidate.

Question 2 

In the analyzing phase of creating a message, you think about the purpose, desired outcome, and business result of your message. Which of the following best articulates the purpose of your message?

A. to suggest the possibility of implementing a flex-time schedule in your office 

B. to describe to your boss how your life would change with a flex-time schedule 

C. to tell your boss how much your friend likes having a flex-time schedule 

D. to improve employee productivity and job satisfaction by giving workers more balanced lives

Question 3 

Which of the following statements about buffers is true?

A. A buffer is a closing statement that comes after bad news. 

B. A buffer tends to worsen the adverse impact of bad news. 

C. A buffer should obscure the fact that bad news may be coming later in the message. 

D. A buffer can provide positive information that builds goodwill.

Question 4 

During lunch with a friend, she tells you that her office recently implemented flex-time hours. It has been a positive change at her workplace, and you think that it would be great to have flex-timing at your office as well. You decide to approach your boss about this possibility. Which of the following would be best to include in an email to your boss suggesting the idea?

A. I think a flex-time schedule would be good for me. 

B. Flex-time would give me more free time. 

C. I bet everyone would love having a more flexible schedule instead of the typical 9-5 work schedule. 

D. In other offices, the flex-time schedule has increased productivity and decreased turnover.

Question 5 

Which of the following would likely require persuasion?  

A. exchanging a sweater for one in a smaller size 

B. getting an extension on a deadline 

C. congratulating a co-worker on her promotion 

D. giving a colleague the link to a website you think he’ll find useful

Question 6 

You need to write a letter to a customer denying a claim, as the customer is responsible for the problem that she is asking you to fix. In this situation, __________.

A. the direct approach is best to buffer the bad news 

B. the direct approach is preferred so that you get right to the point without introductory pleasantries 

C. the indirect approach alleviates the need to phrase the bad news tactfully 

D. the indirect approach can provide introductory information so it can be understood by the reader

Question 7 

If you communicate bad news ineffectively, you risk __________.

A. getting immediate feedback 

B. losing customers, clients, or employees 

C. having the news accepted as final 

D. being blamed for the incident that led to the news

Question 8 

If you phrase bad news __________, your audience is more likely to understand your message.

A. by sugarcoating it 

B. in clear terms 

C. through implication 

D. using subtle hints

Question 9 

Due to a family emergency, you will be unable to fulfill your contract to cater for a client’s upcoming party. The event is several weeks away, but you know that the client will not be able to reschedule it. When you contact your client to share this news, you should __________.

A. not include an apology, since this emergency was beyond your control 

B. tell the client that you will contact other catering companies to see if they can take over the job 

C. inform them that you will be happy to cater the event if they reschedule it 

D. wait a few days before actually canceling to try and soften the blow

Question 10 

Which of the following medium options is recommended both for targeting a personal appeal to an individual and for communicating with large audiences?

A. email

B. memo

C. telephone

D. group meeting

Question 11 

Your boss is in a hurry to leave, so she quickly delegates an assignment to you. She needs you to communicate some bad news to a number of people at different geographic locations. Though she wants the message to spread instantaneously, she wants to give the audience time to carefully consider a response. It’s also a priority for her that the message doesn’t come across as impersonal or evasive. After she has left, you realize that she didn’t specify which medium she wants you to use for the message. Taking her considerations into account, you determine that a(n. __________ would be an appropriate medium to use.  

A. newsletter

B. email

C. letter

D. blog post

Question 12 

You need to send a persuasive message to a co-worker, but you want to receive the feedback immediately. Under these circumstances, which of the following would be the best medium for your message?

A. an email 

B. an instant message 

C. a phone call 

D. a memo

Question 13 

You need to email a co-worker to ask for her assistance on a project. In the context of this message, which of the following constitutes a refutation you could include in your request in anticipation of a possible objection?

A. I really need your help right now, as my department is short-staffed. 

B. I won’t be able to complete my project if you don’t help me. 

C. While this may sound time-consuming, I will only need one hour of your time. 

D. If you decide to help me, then you will have to work overtime.

Question 14 

Being persuasive __________.

A. is rarely required in your daily life 

B. involves understanding why your audience may resist your ideas 

C. means tricking your audience into doing what you want 

D. is very unethical, and in some situations may even be illegal

Question 15 

Angelina has to reject an employee’s request for time off, and is trying to determine the best medium in which to deliver this message. She is also thinking about what the employee’s reaction will be, and if there is anything she can say to soften the bad news. Angelina is engaged in which stage of the ACE process?

A. analyzing

B. addressing

C. composing

D. critiquing

Question 16 

For which of the following reasons would making a telephone call be preferable to sending an email?

A. It allows you to reach large audiences. 

B. It allows you to include additional arguments that may help your persuasive appeal. 

C. It gives your audience time to consider your appeal before carefully responding. 

D. It allows for immediate feedback so you can alter your appeal instantly, if necessary.

Question 17 

In which of the following situations is the direct organizational method the preferred way to deliver bad news?  

A. if the news is likely to upset or anger the audience 

B. if the news is irrelevant to health and safety 

C. if the news is difficult to explain or understand 

D. if it is important that the audience hears the news immediately

Question 18 

In persuasive situations, you will increase your chances of getting a positive response by __________ the analyzing phase of the ACE communication process.

A. devoting less time to 

B. changing the order of 

C. omitting

D. spending more time on

Question 19 

Which of the following options is most likely to be used for reaching potential audiences you can’t yet identify?

A. group meeting 

B. email

C. telephone

D. blog

Question 20 

A manufacturing company realizes that one of its products has a serious defect and wants to quickly disseminate this news to the public. Which of the following would be an appropriate way to accomplish this?

A. website

B. memo

C. telephone

D. letter

Question 21 

At your company, a number of routine office tasks are loosely shared among entry-level employees, who perform these duties in addition to their specific job descriptions. This often results in tasks being done late, poorly, or not at all. You suggest to your boss that outsourcing this work might be a good idea. He is interested, so he asks you to research and recommend a service provider. Which of the following best articulates the research question you have been asked to explore?

A. Is it fair to make entry-level employees do this additional work? 

B. How can we train the entry-level employees so that they can perform these tasks in a more efficient manner? 

C. Which outsourcing service provider would be the best for us? 

D. Is outsourcing the best solution to our problem?

Question 22 

You work in a small office of fewer than 20 employees with no dedicated IT staff. As the resident technical expert, you are called on to deal with computer issues and technology-related decisions. Lately this has been taking up more and more of your time and you feel that it is no longer an efficient arrangement. You speak to your boss about contracting with an IT company to oversee these needs, and she tells you to research some options. You find a website with some interesting information about this topic, plus the author is a well-known expert in the field. There is some useful data, for which the author has taken care to provide citations. There also are some promising links, but when you try to click them, they are broken or unavailable. You find that the page was last updated over a year ago. How will you evaluate this source?

A. This source should be cited in your report, as it amply meets all three “A”s. 

B. This source has some accuracy issues, so it should not be cited. 

C. This source is not very recent, but given the nature of your research it is acceptable. 

D. This source fares well regarding authorship and accuracy, but is not current enough to be cited.

Question 23 

Using an online database like LexisNexis to search for articles on a topic __________.

A. is not as effective as doing a Google search 

B. allows you to search publications not available through a Google search 

C. is less expensive but more time-consuming than a Google search 

D. leads you to articles that are less reliable than web pages

Question 24 

When you are using a search engine, the main body of the results page is most likely to begin with sites __________.

A. that are least relevant to your search 

B. that are being accessed by other users at that very moment 

C. that are accessed least frequently 

D. that are frequently accessed or that most

PART 1

1. 360.org, an organization working toward curbing climate change, recently conducted an interview with Jessica for the position of a public relations officer. However, interviewers Brenda and Laura are divided over whether Jessica should be given the job. Brenda believes that Jessica does not have in-depth knowledge about the issue of global warming and its impact. On the other hand, Laura feels that Jessica would be perfect for the job because she has strong interpersonal skills. Which of the following, if true, would weaken Laura’s argument?

a. Jessica was unable to communicate clearly why she was right for the job.

b. Jessica was high on confidence about getting the job because of her strong networking skills.

c. Jessica listened intently to the interviewers’ questions before answering them.

d. Jessica was unable to fare well in the written test which analyzed her conceptual skills.

e. Jessica was very friendly and courteous with the receptionist while greeting her.

2. Which of the following best defines organizational behavior?

a. It is a field which is not influenced by factors in the external world.

b. It involves analyzing different people in an industry with independent profit-centered motives.

c. It involves the study of groups of people coming together for collective bargaining.

d. It involves developing exclusively the knowledge of managers and senior-level employees.

e. It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the company’s output.

3. ________ refers to a gut feeling not necessarily supported by research.

a. Inference

b. Logic

c. Rationality

d. Intuition

e. Reasoning

4. Which of the following is a difference between sociology and psychology?

a. Sociology uses various methods of empirical investigation whereas psychology uses limited critical analyses. b. Sociology studies humans and animals whereas psychology focuses exclusively on humans.

c. Sociology studies people in relation to their social culture whereas psychology focuses on the individual.

d. Sociology incorporates research from social sciences, philosophy, and natural sciences; psychology does not. e. Sociology uses only qualitative techniques whereas psychology uses both qualitative and quantitative techniques.

5. Myriam is analyzing the gender roles of men and women in management in the United States and comparing them to the gender roles in management in Japan. She is surveying fifty male and fifty female managers in each country to compare their daily behavior. Myriam’s study exemplifies how ________ contributes to OB.

a. psychology

b. anthropology

c. corporate strategy

d. political science

e. archaeology

6. Which of the following is a result of globalization?

a. lower production of goods in developing nations

b. shared social value among all cultures

c. highly homogeneous workforce

d. organizations being bound by national borders

e. jobs moving to nations with low-cost labor

7. Which of the following is an example of a position in a service job?

a. environmental campaigner

b. production line worker

c. human resource executive

d. flight attendant

e. administrative executive

8. Which of the following is not a reality for today’s workforce?

a. The line between work and non-work time has become blurred.

b. Issues related to well-being have dropped as the number of employees who work at home rises.

c. Employees have heavy outside commitments.

d. Organizations are asking employees to put in longer hours.

e. Many workers never get away from the virtual workplace.

9. Group ________ is the extent to which members of a group support and validate one another at work.

a. associability

b. think

c. affect

d. cohesion

e. maturity

10. Differences in ________ indicate surface-level diversity.

a. values

b. ethnicity

c. style of work

d. attitudes e. personality

11. Malcolm Industries recently hired a large number of workers for the company’s new construction factory in Colorado. During the hiring process, the management made a clear effort to recruit physically strong individuals because the work at the factory involves manual labor. The jobs need to be performed by individuals who have the energy and physical stamina to work for long hours. Which of the following surface-level characteristics did the company most likely concentrate on when selecting the new workers?

a. beliefs

b. values

c. religion

d. personality

e. age

12. Which of the following is the most likely reason why employers should employ older workers?

a. Older workers are flexible and learn quickly.

b. They adjust to new technology promptly.

c. Older workers have extensive work experience.

d. They have shorter tenures and hence lower pension benefits than younger workers.

e. The rates of unavoidable absences are lower than those of younger workers.

13. ________ refers to an overall factor of intelligence as suggested by the positive correlations among specific intellectual ability dimensions.

a. The Flynn effect

b. Malleable intelligence

c. Extelligence

d. General mental ability

e. Virtual memory

14. Jeremy Samuels works in a police department in California. His job often requires him to observe clues that criminals leave behind. His job is to analyze these clues, which helps the department catch the criminal. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Jeremy most likely have?

a. perceptual speed

b. extent flexibility

c. number aptitude

d. spatial visualization

e. dynamic flexibility

15. Lorna Perry, who works in a financial firm in Michigan, is required to calculate a large number of clients’ accounts daily. She needs to tally figures and check accuracy at a high speed. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Lorna most likely use?

a. number aptitude

b. visual perception

c. extent flexibility

d. perpetual speed

e. deductive reasoning

16. In her work in the publishing industry, Vera Loranzo seeks out new authors who she considers promising. In the past two years, she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. After learning about her management’s decision, she is extremely frustrated and is beginning to resent the job she does. However, she knows there is nothing she can do and continues working because of the good perks and salary benefits the job offers. How can Vera’s job attitude be best described?

a. low emotional contagion

b. low job satisfaction

c. high psychological empowerment

d. low job involvement

e. high positivity offset

17. Lillian Stintson works for a global women’s rights organization. In the past few months, she has traveled across the globe for the campaign she was working on. In addition, she has been working weekends to meet campaign milestones. She has now decided to take a month’s holiday to relax and get a much-needed break. She knows that the organization will understand her need for a long holiday. Which of the following best represents Lillian’s feeling?

a. low organizational commitment

b. low employee engagement

c. low job involvement

d. high interest in whistle-blowing

e. high perceived organizational support

18. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about the major job attitudes?

a. They tend to overlap one another.

b. They are highly distinct from one another.

c. They increase cognitive dissonance.

d. They are generally resistant to change.

e. They are not correlated to one another.

19. The ________ response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity.

a. exit

b. voice

c. loyalty

d. neglect

e. acceptance

20. To get his company through some hard economic times, Ben’s working hours have just been reduced from 40 hours a week to 33. Ben is upset about the reduction in time and pay, but he shows up at work every morning and is willing to patiently wait until economic times improve and he can go back to working full time. Which of the following types of response is being displayed by Ben?

a. performance

b. loyalty

c. voice

d. neglect

e. exit

21. Jean Ervin works as a fund raising executive at a women’s rights organization in San Diego. Though she has been with the organization for only a year now, she has already been promoted and often gets excellent feedback from her manager. Her manager says that the key to Jean’s good performance is that she is happy with the work she does and she is excited about the challenges in tasks, which she takes up with a lot of enthusiasm. Which of the following mood dimensions is Jean most likely to be feeling?

a. neutral affect

b. high positive affect

c. high negative affect

d. low positive affect

e. low negative affect

22. Which of the following is an example of deep acting?

a. An Individual’s actual emotions.

b. Trying to modify one’s true inner feelings based on display rules.

c. Hiding one’s inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

d. Emotions that are organizationally required and considered appropriate in a given job.

e. None of the above.

23. Which of the following is an argument used against emotional intelligence?

a. It does not have the capacity to predict criteria that matter.

b. It cannot be measured easily and measures of EI are diverse.

c. It is not genetically influenced and thus is void of an underlying biological factor.

d. It is not closely related to intelligence and personality.

e. It can be learned by experience.

24. Emotions such as relaxation, serenity, and calmness comprise the __________ mood dimension.

a. low positive affect

b. high negative affect

c. high positive affect

d. low negative affect

e. neutral affect

25. __________ refers to individual differences in strength with which individuals experience their emotions.

a. Intelligence quotient

b. Ambiguity effect

c. Affect intensity

d. The Hawthorne effect

e. Positivity offset.

PART 2

1. Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right candidate for the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics about Lugo indicate her ________.

a. personality

b. genealogy

c. knowledge

d. skill

e. talent

2. Which of the following statements is true about personality?

a. Personality remains constant over time.

b. Personality is free from the influence of the environment.

c. Personality can be measured solely through personal interviews.

d. Personality is influenced by hereditary factors.

e. Parents highly influence the development of their offspring’s personality.

3. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the ________ type are practical and prefer routine and order and focus on details.

a. extraverted

b. sensing

c. perceiving

d. intuitive

e. feeling

4. Ellen Athers works as a communication executive at a travel house. She is known to be friendly with her colleagues and interacts with them regularly to build strong work relationships. She knows that her rapport with her co-workers is a crucial part of her work and invests time in these relationships. In addition, she is assertive in making decisions, and colleagues take her decisions seriously. Which of the following types is Athers most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

a. extraverted

b. perceiving

c. solitary

d. brooder

e. introverted

5. Elaine Chamberlain works as a research executive at an environmental organization. Though her colleagues are helpful and friendly, because of her shy nature, she often eats her lunch at her desk and has limited interactions with them. She is glad that her nature of work does not require her to interact with her co-workers to a high extent. Which of the following types is Elaine most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

a. social

b. introverted

c. exhibitionist

d. extraverted

e. gregarious

6. What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of S versus N stand for?

a. social/perceiving

b. sympathetic/thinking

c. stable/negligent

d. shrewd/feeling

e. sensing/intuitive

7. Which of the following is most likely to be a drawback of highly conscientious people according to the Big Five model?

a. They excessively emphasize being creative.

b. They engage in numerous risky behaviors, such as smoking and drinking.

c. They focus on learning instead of performing a job efficiently.

d. They tend to indulge in irresponsible behavior and be disorganized.

e. They do not adapt well to changing contexts.

8. Which of the following is true about narcissists?

a. They go out of their way to be helpful to colleagues.

b. They do not require admiration or importance of people.

c. They have an inferiority complex about themselves.

d. They are meek, timid, and shy in nature.

e. They are more likely to emerge as leaders.

9. Which of the following is an instrumental value according to the Rokeach Value Survey?

a. social recognition

b. personal discipline

c. economic success

d. world peace

e. meaning in life

10. If a person responds to a particular situation in the same way over a long time period, then the attribution theory states that the behavior demonstrates ________.

a. traceability

b. distinctiveness

c. consistency

d. discontinuity

e. consensus

11. According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores _________, we tend to attribute it to external causes. a. low on adaptability

b. high on stability

c. low on consistency

d. low on distinctiveness

e. low on consensus

12. ________ bias indicates the tendency of an individual to attribute his or her own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors.

a. Congruence

b. Anchoring

c. Self-serving

d. Distinction

e. Status quo

13. Harriet Kirby, a fund raising manager at a women’s rights organization, experienced a bad incident last year with the public relations manager of a banking company who had committed to sponsor a charity event. The bank backed out at the last minute. This year, when a renowned international bank executive showed interest in sponsoring the organization’s upcoming annual event, Harriet rejected their participation. She felt that banks have a casual approach toward charity events and it is risky to involve them in the event. Which of the following best characterizes Harriet’s decision?

a. cognitive dissonance

b. self-fulfilling prophecy

c. bandwagon effect

d. self-serving bias

e. selective perception

14. Anne Warner, a climate campaigner at an environmental organization, is in charge of implementing a campaign activity where she needs to increase the use of renewable energy in the villages of Vietnam. For her project, she uses the rational decision-making model to implement activities. She has just completed identifying an appropriate criteria for decision making and has allocated weights to the criteria. Which of the following is Anne most likely to undertake next according to the model?

a. select hydro energy as the best option

b. weigh advantages between solar and wind energy

c. determine goals of the project

d. analyze the problems of the project

e. develop the alternatives

15. The ________ bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.

a. availability

b. anchoring

c. hindsight

d. overconfidence

e. self-serving

16. ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

a. Learning

b. Motivation

c. Leadership

d. Management

e. Emotional labor

17. If Alberta is categorized as a Theory X manager, which of the following behaviors is she most likely to exhibit? a. She will trust her employees to use their discretion in most matters.

b. She will let her employees choose their own goals.

c. She will delegate authority extensively to junior managers.

d. She will empower her subordinates.

e. She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing.

18. Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory?

a. Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback.

b. Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control.

c. People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals.

d. Generalized goals produce a higher level of output than specific goals.

e. Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-distance cultures.

19. The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory.

a. self-determination

b. reinforcement

c. self-efficacy

d. two-factor

e. goal-setting

20. Which of the following sources of increasing self-efficacy involves gaining relevant experience with a particular task or job?

a. vicarious modeling

b. arousal

c. cognitive learning

d. enactive mastery

e. verbal persuasion

21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the job characteristics model?

a. The operation of the model requires employees to have similar skill sets.

b. The operation of the model is relatively individualistic in nature.

c. The operation of the model is universal and unaffected by cultural factors.

d. The operation of the model fulfills only extrinsic motivational needs.

e. The operation of the model cannot be quantitatively measured.

22. The main drawback of representative participation as an employee involvement measure is that ________.

a. it is able to exert its impact only in the short run

b. it is likely to require a major change in organizational roles

c. it is primarily symbolic in its impact

d. it is a time-consuming process

e. it is consistent with the Theory Y view of motivation

23. Which of the following statements is true regarding gainsharing?

a. Gainsharing involves paying employees based on the number of new skills acquired by them in a specific time period.

b. Employees working under gainsharing plans have a greater feeling of psychological ownership.

c. Gainsharing does not distribute profits, only gains in profits.

d. Gainsharing encourages social loafing.

e. Gainsharing focuses on productivity gains rather than profits.

24. Core-plus plans consist of ________. a. predesigned packages of benefits that an employee must accept as a whole

b. pretax dollars up to the dollar amount offered in the plan that an employee sets apart to pay for particular benefits

c. essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefits that an employee can choose from

d. fractions of a company’s profit margins determined on the basis of an established formula

e. monetary benefits which are linked to one’s performance appraisals

25. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?

a. bonus

b. gainsharing

c. employee stock option

d. profit-sharing plan

e. employee recognition

PART 3

1. Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

a. The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

b. A group is characterized by the independence of its members.

c. People have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group.

d. An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.

e. A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.

2. An informal group is characterized by the ________.

a. pursuit of particular organizational goals

b. fulfillment of the need for social contact

c. predetermined designation of tasks of members

d. creation of timelines and rationale

e. stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization

3. Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of is the territory of the ________ theory.

a. reinforcement

b. expectancy

c. social exchange

d. equity

e. social identity

4. Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customers watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, and Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them by saying, “You guys are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.

a. contrast bias

b. social exchange

c. groupthink

d. ingroup favoritism

e. social loafing

5. Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

a. tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own

b. tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

c. tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably

d. tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world e. tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well

6. A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew, the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

a. reference norms

b. performance norms

c. leisure norms

d. appearance norms

e. resource allocation norms

7. Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

a. brainstorming

b. electronic and interacting

c. brainstorming and electronic

d. interacting and brainstorming

e. nominal and electronic

8. The current popularity of teams can be attributed to the fact that ________.

a. they represent a better way to use employee talents

b. they aid in the performance of simple tasks that do not require diverse inputs

c. they reduce the need for coordination and supervision

d. they enable quicker accomplishment of goals than individuals

e. they strengthen the worth of individual teams players over the team

9. GoAir, a low-cost airline, has created a team made up of employees from production, planning, quality control, tooling, design engineering, and information systems to automate the company’s C-17 program. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team.

a. self-managed work

b. task

c. problem-solving

d. command

e. cross-functional

10. Which of the following statements is not true regarding multiteam systems?

a. They are more successful when they have boundary spanners.

b. They are effectively teams of teams.

c. They are collections of two or more independent teams that share a superordinate goal.

d. They perform better when lines of communication are restricted.

e. They are used to offset the problems associated with adding more members to an existing team.

11. Cultural diversity is an asset for teams where tasks ________.

a. require a variety of viewpoints

b. required for completing the work are highly independent

c. involve emotional labor

d. are simple and routine

e. are highly technical

12. When teams are performing nonroutine activities, ________ stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions.

a. disciplinary conflicts

b. resource allocation conflicts

c. discriminatory conflicts

d. task conflicts

e. relationship conflicts 

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team?

a. Cross-functional teams have decreased in popularity in the last few decades.

b. Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects.

c. A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels.

d. In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short.

e. A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department.

14. The ________ network is a type of formal small-group network that relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group’s communication.

a. cross-functional

b. matrix

c. chain

d. all channel

e. wheel

15. Formal information channels are characterized by:

a. the absence of noise in the communication cycle

b. the personal and social nature of usage

c. the compliance with the organizational authority chain

d. the transmission of spontaneous messages

e. the emergence in response to individual choices

16. A relatively superficial consideration of evidence and information making use of heuristics is defined as ________.

a. automatic processing

b. serial processing

c. parallel processing

d. controlled processing

e. depth processing

17. Before buying her new phone, Gina listed the various requirements her new phone must meet. As a wedding planner, much of her work revolves around using e-mail to forward pictures of locations, designs, and food arrangements that she could categorize by themes and prices. She requires a phone with high storage capacity, speedy internet, and easy-to-use methods to organize and save content. After listing these requirements, she fixed a budget and began surveying phones online. She also obtained information from friends. In a week’s time, Gina had shortlisted three models that suited her needs and was ready to make the final choice. Gina used ________ to arrive at this decision.

a. automatic processing

b. heuristic processing

c. selective processing

d. controlled processing

e. superficial processing

18. The time attendance system in the production division at MM, an automobile manufacturing company, was malfunctioning. Consequently, Greg Hill, one of the front-level managers, sent it for repair. In the meantime, he placed a register where all workers of the production division had to provide their time of entry and exit from office. At the end of the week, when looking through the time logs, he had certain concerns about a group of employees. In the next week, he personally tracked the time this group of employees spent working and realized that they were reporting a greater number of working hours than they actually worked. This group engaged in a barrier to communication called ________.

a. selective perception

b. communication apprehension

c. silence

d. lying

e. filtering

19. Trevor Guerney is a manager who believes that those who are to be affected by a change must be involved in the change. Consequently, he always ensures that his subordinates have the knowledge of what is happening around them, and he often holds meetings to obtain employee opinion and suggestions before making any decision that would apply to them. Similarly, Trevor’s team proactively approaches him with problems and potential solutions as they know he will not respond by criticizing them. From the information provided in the scenario, we can say that ________.

a. Trevor’s team has positive leader-member relations

b. Trevor’s team has a low degree of trust propensity

c. Trevor’s team is unsatisfied with his power position

d. Trevor’s team requires more directive leadership

e. Trevor’s leadership is primarily task-oriented

20. According to the situational leadership theory, if employees are unwilling and unable, the appropriate leadership style in this situation would be ________.

a. supportive

b. participative

c. democratic

d. directive

e. person-oriented

21. The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation’s economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government’s second term, he was censured as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. Which of the following theoretical approaches is reflected here?

a. attribution theory

b. trait theories

c. servant leadership perspective

d. behavioral theories

e. path-goal theory

22. The top management of Myers Corp are planning a reorganization of their company to cut costs and increase efficiency. The different department heads have been asked to present their departmental strengths, needs, and concerns at a meeting. The various division heads have come to an agreement that clarity of goals and tasks, detailed procedural guidelines like employee manuals, and a cooperative workforce are their main strengths. Additionally, they are of the opinion that cutting managerial positions to reduce costs and reorganizing Myers Corp as a relatively flat organization is a good approach. This scenario reflects the operation of ________ in replacing the support and ability offered by leaders.

a. substitutes

b. attributes

c. traits

d. charisma

e. vision

23. Buck passing is seen when an employee:

a. transfers responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone else

b. develops explanations that lessen his or her responsibility for a negative outcome

c. prolongs a task to give the appearance of being occupied

d. documents his or her activity rigorously to project an image of competence and thoroughness

e. avoids an unwanted task by falsely pleading ignorance or inability

24. Which of the following is a defensive behavior that is used to avoid change?

a. stretching

b. preventing

c. stalling

d. misrepresenting

e. scapegoating

25. Daphne is one of the three project managers at Virgo Inc., an art and design studio. Raymond and Gabriel, the other two project managers, are unhappy working with Daphne as she always selects projects that suit her area of expertise and avoids projects which require more ambiguous work, have tight deadlines, and represent a low probability of success. Raymond and Gabriel feel that they deserve greater credit than Daphne for being open and accepting different work demands and situations, as opposed to Daphne, who always takes a conservative and risk-averse approach. Daphne is using the defensive behavior of ________ here.

a. playing safe

b. stalling

c. retaliating

d. scapegoating

e. ingratiating

PART 4

1. According to the interactionist view, ________ conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance.

a. formal

b. reactive

c. evaluative

d. functional

e. informal

2. Which of the following is not true regarding gender differences in negotiations?

a. Men value status more than women.

b. Women value compassion and altruism more than men.

c. Women place a lower value on relationship outcomes than men.

d. Men place a higher value on economic outcomes than women.

e. Men and women negotiate differently.

3. Conflict between two people is called ________ conflict.

a. dyadic

b. bilateral

c. intragroup

d. dual

e. intergroup

4. A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent’s interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this co

C05 Online Exam 1_02 Score 100%

Question 1 

__________ is the quality of being unambiguous and easy to understand.  

A. Appropriateness 

B. Representativeness 

C. Substitutability 

D. Clarity

Question 2 

In which of the following is an oral communication method required?

A. writing news articles 

B. updating Facebook statuses 

C. participating in teleconferences 

D. updating wikis

Question 3 

__________ arise from conflicts between verbal and nonverbal communication.

A. Mixed messages 

B. Semantic barriers 

C. Psychological barriers 

D. Language barriers

Question 4 

Which of the following is a form of social media?

A. performance reports 

B. company newsletter 

C. Twitter 

D. industry journals

Question 5 

__________ arise from language that is ambiguous or difficult to understand.

A. Psychological barriers 

B. Semantic barriers 

C. Language barriers 

D. Physiological barriers

Question 6 

__________ is an example of communication.

A. Planning the plotline of a book that you intend to write 

B. Setting a reminder text on your cell phone 

C. Updating your status on a social networking site 

D. Listening to classic tunes on an MP3 player

Question 7 

A good communicator __________.  

A. knows about all technologies and their uses. 

B. knows that all technology choices can be used interchangeably. 

C. understands that social media are inappropriate for business communication. 

D. thinks about the implications of technology options and uses his or her choices wisely.

Question 8 

Which of the following considerations is relevant to the adaptable characteristic of effective business communicators?

A. What do I want to accomplish with my message? 

B. With whom should I communicate to accomplish my goal? 

C. Is my message understandable within other cultures? 

D. Is my message clear and concise?

Question 9 

Which of the following statements about technology is true?

A. Technology increases the distance between communicators. 

B. Technology allows an immediate exchange of information across many miles and time zones. 

C. Technology does not change very rapidly. 

D. Technology is not prey to pitfalls since it eliminates the risk of failed communication.

Question 10 

Which of the following terms refers to the process of putting your message into words, images, or actions?

A. transmitting

B. encoding

C. receiving

D. interpreting

Question 11 

Which of the following would be best for transmitting a message to and receiving a response from one or more people?

A. performance reports 

B. company newsletters 

C. email

D. industry journals

Question 12 

Padma is asked if she knows how to make a red wine reduction. Padma looks down at her feet, quietly mumbles “sure,” and starts wringing her hands. When the job of making the red wine reduction is assigned to someone else, Padma is confused, as she had answered affirmatively that she knew how to do it. Which of the following is the best explanation of what happened here?  

A. A psychological barrier has obstructed communication; by mumbling her reply, Padma signaled that she was offended by the request. 

B. A semantic barrier has occurred; since Padma answered “sure” instead of “yes,” her answer was confusing. 

C. A physiological barrier has obstructed communication; by wringing her hands, Padma has given the impression that they hurt and that she cannot perform the task. 

D. A mixed message has obstructed communication; Padma’s verbal and nonverbal responses communicate different things.

Question 13 

In the context of doing business with people from other cultures, effective communicators __________.

A. memorize a list of cultural differences between countries. 

B. are ready to adapt to different cultural needs. 

C. ignore cultural differences and treat everyone equally. 

D. treat others as they would like to be treated.

Question 14 

You are collaborating on a report with a co-worker and want to send him the latest version of your document. Which of the following statements is true regarding collaborating in this case?

A. Typing out the report and mailing it to your colleague by post would be the fastest way of delivering the report. 

B. Uploading the document to the company intranet will deliver it to your co-worker’s mailbox. 

C. Discussing the changes on a public blog is the best way to share and explore the document. 

D. Using a team wiki will allow both of you to constantly update the document within a shared space.

Question 15 

Just as you’re about to shut down your computer for the day, you remember that you need to send an update to your boss. You dash off a quick email and press “send” without spell-checking or proofing it. Doing so __________.

A.  is fine since this is not a formal report 

B. is the right approach, since email does not require proofreading 

C. is a bad idea, since you need to use correct grammar in all of your messages 

D. is correct because an email needs to be as short as possible

Question 16 

__________ means that a message uses no more words than are necessary to accomplish its purpose.  

A. Clarity 

B. Appropriateness 

C. Substitutability 

D. Conciseness

Question 17 

You joined a team just as it was finishing up a large and much-anticipated project at your company, and you feel a little insecure as its newest member—and the one who contributed the least to the project. At the next staff meeting, your boss thanks you for all your hard work in making the project a success. Instead of this making you feel good, you feel even more uncomfortable, interpreting the comment as a sarcastic remark about how little you actually participated in the project. This is an example of a __________.

A. psychological barrier. 

B. semantic barrier. 

C. language barrier. 

D. physiological barrier.

Question 18 

The communication skills you already possess __________ in the workplace.

A. may hamper your attempts to communicate 

B. don’t apply to communication 

C. are sufficient to meet every challenge of communication 

D. will be valuable to you for communicating

Question 19 

Caroline knows that, while her oral presentation skills are stellar, her writing style could use a bit of work. Which of the following would be the best medium for Caroline to communicate in effectively?

A. a podcast 

B. a wiki 

C. a blog 

D. a text chat

Question 20 

Cultural sensitivity __________.

A. applies only to international communication. 

B. deals exclusively with people who are non-native English speakers. 

C. does not refer to cultural differences among people of different ages. 

D. may apply to cultural differences between people of different genders.

C05 Online Exam 2_03 Score 100 percent

Question 1 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following is a question that is recommended to ask when analyzing your audience?

A. Why will they be interested in what you are saying? 

B. What objectives do you want to achieve with your communication? 

C. How quickly can the speech be completed? 

D. What are the points that you do not want to communicate?

Question 2 of 205.0 Points

When nonverbal signals reinforce your words, __________.

A. your listeners remember what you say better 

B. your audience will lack confidence in your words 

C. your nonverbal communication carries less weight than your words 

D. you undermine your persuasiveness

Question 3 of 205.0 Points

__________ involves analyzing the meaning of what you hear, read, or see to determine its intention.  

A. Passive listening 

B. Telecommuting 

C. Listening comprehension 

D. Interpretation

Question 4 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following nonverbal gestures would most likely indicate your happy willingness to assist someone?

A. sighing

B. looking away from him/her 

C. muttering under your breath 

D. pulling out a chair for him/her

Question 5 of 205.0 Points

On your first day at a new job you receive an email asking you to submit your SBDs by Friday so that they can be vetted for inclusion in the new module. You need to ask for clarification as you aren’t sure of what is being asked of you. This is an example of a barrier to __________.

A. passive listening 

B. active listening 

C. listening comprehension 

D. interpretation

Question 6 of 205.0 Points

People who collaborate __________.

A. need to recognize that they may be motivated by different goals 

B. cannot function unless they have different goals 

C. rarely have conflicts arise due to working with different goals in mind 

D. need to find solutions that address only one goal

Question 7 of 205.0 Points

Using a strong and positive tone of voice __________.

A. will undermine your persuasiveness 

B. will come across as arrogant, and is not recommended 

C. will make your audience receptive to your ideas 

D. will cause you to sound hesitant

Question 8 of 205.0 Points

Body language, posture, and gestures __________.

A. reveal little about the attitude of the speaker 

B. can help you interpret attitudes without listening to any words 

C. only express attitudes of shame or uncertainty 

D. should be interpreted without regard for facial expressions

Question 9 of 205.0 Points

You need help on a project, so you approach a colleague and find him busily doing his own work. When you approach him to ask for help, __________.

A. begin by describing your project in great detail, so your co-worker will know exactly what he is getting into. 

B. you should expect that he is already prepared to listen. 

C. briefly describe what you want so that he understands why you are communicating. 

D. do not address any possible objections that might make your co-worker say no to your request.

Question 10 of 205.0 Points

Passive listening means __________.

A. focusing attentively on what a speaker says. 

B. hearing information without actively paying attention to ensure understanding. 

C. actively working to understand the information a speaker is providing. 

D. trying to interpret the information presented by a speaker.

Question 11 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following statements best phrases a negative comment positively?

A. You don’t have an eye for detail, but you really do have a great sense of the big picture. 

B. You do a good job of visualizing the big picture, and you’d be even more effective if you improved your attention to detail. 

C. I don’t know anyone better than you at seeing the big picture, but you could really stand to improve your attention to detail. 

D. You need to improve your attention to detail, but you’re already wonderful at seeing the big picture.

Question 12 of 205.0 Points

As you’re packing up to leave the office on a Friday afternoon, your boss tells you that she’d like a status report from you as soon as possible. You head out for the weekend and complete the status report first thing Monday morning. When your boss receives it, she complains that she needed it sooner. What is the most likely cause of this breakdown in communication?

A. passive listening 

B. failure to listen actively 

C. barriers to listening comprehension 

D. difference of interpretation

Question 13 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following is an example of a difficulty in listening comprehension?

A. not hearing what an ER doctor says because an ambulance outside is blaring its siren 

B. not understanding what an ER doctor means when he says you are suffering from hypertension 

C. not hearing what an ER doctor says because of the conversations and cries of pain in the waiting area 

D. not listening to what an ER doctor says because you’re distracted by a new patient who has just been wheeled into the room

Question 14 of 205.0 Points

A company sends one of its junior executives to meet with the CEO of another company. The CEO is insulted that someone of equal rank was not sent. Which of the following is most likely true?

A. The junior executive’s company’s employees are granted respect based on their positions alone. 

B. The junior executive’s company is very formal and hierarchical. 

C. The CEO’s company believes in social equality. 

D. The CEO’s company has a clear separation between superiors and subordinates.

Question 15 of 205.0 Points

Your audience will be more likely to remember what you say in which of the following situations?

A. smiling as you reveal declining sales figures 

B. frowning while you explain a serious matter 

C. pacing as you ensure your audience that there is no cause for alarm 

D. sounding hesitant as you describe a reorganization plan

Question 16 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following is one of the categories of active listening skills?

A. describing

B. evaluating

C. implying

D. interrupting

Question 17 of 205.0 Points

Ella receives an email from her co-worker Mitsuko in Japan. Mitsuko tells Ella that she will not be able to visit her in the U.S. offices as she had hoped to, and includes an emoticon to express her sadness. Which of the following emoticons did Mitsuko most likely use in her email?

A. (;_;) 

B. 🙁 

C. o.o

D. :-0

Question 18 of 205.0 Points

Carol approaches a co-worker, shaking her head as she does so. With a frown on her face, she angrily asks, “Did you finish the report yet?” Based on this situation, which of the following represents verbal communication?

A. shaking head 

B. frowning

C. using those specific words 

D. using an angry tone of voice

Question 19 of 205.0 Points

Paraphrasing to ensure understanding __________.

A. means asking straightforward questions about what was said 

B. involves repeating exactly what you heard in order to make sure you didn’t mishear anything 

C.  is less complicated than asking questions 

D. can help you understand the emotional content behind a statement

Question 20 of 205.0 Points

Which of the following is an environmental hearing distraction?

A. a car alarm being set off 

B. a ringing sound in one’s ears after attending a loud concert 

C. blocked ears due to a cold 

D. inability to focus due to a migraine

C05 Online Exam 3_05 Score 100 Percent

Question 1 

You have completed a research project and have come up with some interesting and persuasive content. Although your ideas are spot-on, the format of your final report is difficult to read and a little confusing. This __________.

A. is problematic, as it will undermine your credibility 

B. communicates to your audience that you are professional 

C. is irrelevant, as the strength of your content will still shine through 

D. won’t affect the reception of your report, as formatting is only a very minor issue

Question 2 

When you stare at a blank page or a blank computer monitor without a clue of how to begin a composition, you are __________.

A. engaging in free writing 

B. suffering from writer’s block 

C. struggling with the perfectionist syndrome 

D. thinking aloud

Question 3 

If the purpose of your message is to inform parents about the new dismissal procedure designed to alleviate problems with the current process at your school, which of the following best represents the desired outcome of your message?

A. that parents will analyze the situation themselves 

B. that parents will be willing to help 

C. that parents will want to improve their children’s experiences 

D. that parents will follow the new process you are implementing

Question 4 

Which would be the best way to persuade your boss to implement a flex-time schedule in your office?

A. provide research that shows that this arrangement is workable and often results in increased productivity 

B. give the boss the names of the employees who would be interested in working a flex-time schedule 

C. tell the boss how happy it would make you to have the flexibility to accommodate your personal interests 

D. inform the boss about the many leisure activities that employees would be able to engage in if the flex-time schedule were implemented

Question 5 

The final step of the ACE process, evaluating, includes __________.

A. drafting your message 

B. analyzing your audience 

C. selecting the best medium 

D. considering feedback

Question 6 

Starting in September, your company plans to increase the monthly fees it charges to its clients. You are drafting a letter to mail to your clients to inform them of this increase, and hopefully to persuade them to keep their business with you. In analyzing your audience you determine that __________.

A. the clients need to be made aware of the fees they currently pay 

B. the clients need to know how your company will use the revenue from the fees 

C. the clients don’t need any information until September since that is when the increase will go into effect 

D. the clients need to be told what the new fee structure is

Question 7 

Which of the following is done in the first step of ACE?

A. analyzing the purpose 

B. organizing content 

C. revising the content 

D. formatting conventions

Question 8 

Reviewing your message and considering feedback __________.

A. generally leads to less successful proposals 

B. may lead you to reconsider the decisions concerning content, audience, and medium 

C. is part of composing, the second step of the ACE process 

D. will be time-consuming and unnecessary

Question 9 

When selecting a medium for a message, email __________.

A. is not efficient for disseminating information to many people 

B. ensures immediate feedback 

C. may not be appropriate for sending sensitive content 

D. cannot create a permanent record

Question 10 

Business emails __________.

A. should focus on only one topic 

B. should contain only one paragraph 

C. should not contain bullet points 

D. should use generic headings

Question 11 

Brief messages, such as emails or short presentations at meetings, __________.

A. require elaborate outlines 

B. require the use of a tree chart in order to be outlined properly 

C. do not benefit from the outlining process 

D. might only need a few bullet points or questions as their outlines

Question 12 

Which of the following does composing involve?  

A. proofreading

B. revising

C. organizing content 

D. determining the purpose of the message

Question 13 

Which of the following statements about revising a written communication is true?

A. The first draft will never include incomplete thoughts. 

B. The first draft rarely contains awkward sentences. 

C. Written communication provides the opportunity to revise your message as you are communicating it based on immediate feedback. 

D. By the time you get to the end of your first draft you may have discovered new ideas about what to say.

Question 14 

Keeping your purpose and desired outcome in mind as you write your message is most likely to help you evaluate whether your content __________.

A. supports your goal 

B. is formatted correctly 

C. is using the appropriate font style 

D. has any spelling errors

Question 15 

When conducting the audience analysis for a persuasive message, which of the following is one of the recommended questions to consider?

A. How should you organize the persuasive message? 

B. What information does the audience need to know and why? 

C. How should I design the format and delivery? 

D. Does the content ensure complete information?

Question 16 

The first draft of a message focuses on __________.

A. analyzing your audience 

B. getting your thoughts on paper 

C. evaluating your word choices 

D. perfecting your grammar

Question 17 

A letter would be appropriate for which of the following situations?

A. sending a list of the year’s public holidays to all employees 

B. alerting employees that a flex-time schedule is going into effect 

C. communicating news to a client 

D. sending the project schedule to a team

Question 18 

Which of the following key decisions is involved in composing?

A. What must be the purpose of the message? 

B. Which mode of communication must be used? 

C. How can the content be revised effectively? 

D. How can the format be designed for the best effect?

Question 19 

You receive a flyer in the mail telling you about the new and improved cleaning power of Brite laundry detergent. Which of the following is most likely to be the purpose of this message?

A. document the scientific advances in the manufacturing of laundry detergent 

B. describe the technology that led to the new formula for Brite

C. congratulateBrite’s research department on its achievements 

D. persuade customers to buy Brite

Question 20 

In the ACE process for communication, the second step is __________.

A. composing

B. cutting

C. collaborating

D. copying

C05 Online Exam 5_08 Score 100 percent

Question 1 

Which of the following statements would be best to include in a letter turning down someone who applied for a job?

A. We are sorry to inform you that your credentials were not as impressive as those of the other candidates who applied for the position. 

B. We think that you are talented, but feel the position would best be filled by a younger, more vibrant candidate. 

C. Unfortunately, we were more impressed by the other candidates. 

D. After much consideration, we have offered the position to another candidate.

Question 2 

In the analyzing phase of creating a message, you think about the purpose, desired outcome, and business result of your message. Which of the following best articulates the purpose of your message?

A. to suggest the possibility of implementing a flex-time schedule in your office 

B. to describe to your boss how your life would change with a flex-time schedule 

C. to tell your boss how much your friend likes having a flex-time schedule 

D. to improve employee productivity and job satisfaction by giving workers more balanced lives

Question 3 

Which of the following statements about buffers is true?

A. A buffer is a closing statement that comes after bad news. 

B. A buffer tends to worsen the adverse impact of bad news. 

C. A buffer should obscure the fact that bad news may be coming later in the message. 

D. A buffer can provide positive information that builds goodwill.

Question 4 

During lunch with a friend, she tells you that her office recently implemented flex-time hours. It has been a positive change at her workplace, and you think that it would be great to have flex-timing at your office as well. You decide to approach your boss about this possibility. Which of the following would be best to include in an email to your boss suggesting the idea?

A. I think a flex-time schedule would be good for me. 

B. Flex-time would give me more free time. 

C. I bet everyone would love having a more flexible schedule instead of the typical 9-5 work schedule. 

D. In other offices, the flex-time schedule has increased productivity and decreased turnover.

Question 5 

Which of the following would likely require persuasion?  

A. exchanging a sweater for one in a smaller size 

B. getting an extension on a deadline 

C. congratulating a co-worker on her promotion 

D. giving a colleague the link to a website you think he’ll find useful

Question 6 

You need to write a letter to a customer denying a claim, as the customer is responsible for the problem that she is asking you to fix. In this situation, __________.

A. the direct approach is best to buffer the bad news 

B. the direct approach is preferred so that you get right to the point without introductory pleasantries 

C. the indirect approach alleviates the need to phrase the bad news tactfully 

D. the indirect approach can provide introductory information so it can be understood by the reader

Question 7 

If you communicate bad news ineffectively, you risk __________.

A. getting immediate feedback 

B. losing customers, clients, or employees 

C. having the news accepted as final 

D. being blamed for the incident that led to the news

Question 8 

If you phrase bad news __________, your audience is more likely to understand your message.

A. by sugarcoating it 

B. in clear terms 

C. through implication 

D. using subtle hints

Question 9 

Due to a family emergency, you will be unable to fulfill your contract to cater for a client’s upcoming party. The event is several weeks away, but you know that the client will not be able to reschedule it. When you contact your client to share this news, you should __________.

A. not include an apology, since this emergency was beyond your control 

B. tell the client that you will contact other catering companies to see if they can take over the job 

C. inform them that you will be happy to cater the event if they reschedule it 

D. wait a few days before actually canceling to try and soften the blow

Question 10 

Which of the following medium options is recommended both for targeting a personal appeal to an individual and for communicating with large audiences?

A. email

B. memo

C. telephone

D. group meeting

Question 11 

Your boss is in a hurry to leave, so she quickly delegates an assignment to you. She needs you to communicate some bad news to a number of people at different geographic locations. Though she wants the message to spread instantaneously, she wants to give the audience time to carefully consider a response. It’s also a priority for her that the message doesn’t come across as impersonal or evasive. After she has left, you realize that she didn’t specify which medium she wants you to use for the message. Taking her considerations into account, you determine that a(n. __________ would be an appropriate medium to use.  

A. newsletter

B. email

C. letter

D. blog post

Question 12 

You need to send a persuasive message to a co-worker, but you want to receive the feedback immediately. Under these circumstances, which of the following would be the best medium for your message?

A. an email 

B. an instant message 

C. a phone call 

D. a memo

Question 13 

You need to email a co-worker to ask for her assistance on a project. In the context of this message, which of the following constitutes a refutation you could include in your request in anticipation of a possible objection?

A. I really need your help right now, as my department is short-staffed. 

B. I won’t be able to complete my project if you don’t help me. 

C. While this may sound time-consuming, I will only need one hour of your time. 

D. If you decide to help me, then you will have to work overtime.

Question 14 

Being persuasive __________.

A. is rarely required in your daily life 

B. involves understanding why your audience may resist your ideas 

C. means tricking your audience into doing what you want 

D. is very unethical, and in some situations may even be illegal

Question 15 

Angelina has to reject an employee’s request for time off, and is trying to determine the best medium in which to deliver this message. She is also thinking about what the employee’s reaction will be, and if there is anything she can say to soften the bad news. Angelina is engaged in which stage of the ACE process?

A. analyzing

B. addressing

C. composing

D. critiquing

Question 16 

For which of the following reasons would making a telephone call be preferable to sending an email?

A. It allows you to reach large audiences. 

B. It allows you to include additional arguments that may help your persuasive appeal. 

C. It gives your audience time to consider your appeal before carefully responding. 

D. It allows for immediate feedback so you can alter your appeal instantly, if necessary.

Question 17 

In which of the following situations is the direct organizational method the preferred way to deliver bad news?  

A. if the news is likely to upset or anger the audience 

B. if the news is irrelevant to health and safety 

C. if the news is difficult to explain or understand 

D. if it is important that the audience hears the news immediately

Question 18 

In persuasive situations, you will increase your chances of getting a positive response by __________ the analyzing phase of the ACE communication process.

A. devoting less time to 

B. changing the order of 

C. omitting

D. spending more time on

Question 19 

Which of the following options is most likely to be used for reaching potential audiences you can’t yet identify?

A. group meeting 

B. email

C. telephone

D. blog

Question 20 

A manufacturing company realizes that one of its products has a serious defect and wants to quickly disseminate this news to the public. Which of the following would be an appropriate way to accomplish this?

A. website

B. memo

C. telephone

D. letter

Question 21 

At your company, a number of routine office tasks are loosely shared among entry-level employees, who perform these duties in addition to their specific job descriptions. This often results in tasks being done late, poorly, or not at all. You suggest to your boss that outsourcing this work might be a good idea. He is interested, so he asks you to research and recommend a service provider. Which of the following best articulates the research question you have been asked to explore?

A. Is it fair to make entry-level employees do this additional work? 

B. How can we train the entry-level employees so that they can perform these tasks in a more efficient manner? 

C. Which outsourcing service provider would be the best for us? 

D. Is outsourcing the best solution to our problem?

Question 22 

You work in a small office of fewer than 20 employees with no dedicated IT staff. As the resident technical expert, you are called on to deal with computer issues and technology-related decisions. Lately this has been taking up more and more of your time and you feel that it is no longer an efficient arrangement. You speak to your boss about contracting with an IT company to oversee these needs, and she tells you to research some options. You find a website with some interesting information about this topic, plus the author is a well-known expert in the field. There is some useful data, for which the author has taken care to provide citations. There also are some promising links, but when you try to click them, they are broken or unavailable. You find that the page was last updated over a year ago. How will you evaluate this source?

A. This source should be cited in your report, as it amply meets all three “A”s. 

B. This source has some accuracy issues, so it should not be cited. 

C. This source is not very recent, but given the nature of your research it is acceptable. 

D. This source fares well regarding authorship and accuracy, but is not current enough to be cited.

Question 23 

Using an online database like LexisNexis to search for articles on a topic __________.

A. is not as effective as doing a Google search 

B. allows you to search publications not available through a Google search 

C. is less expensive but more time-consuming than a Google search 

D. leads you to articles that are less reliable than web pages

Question 24 

When you are using a search engine, the main body of the results page is most likely to begin with sites __________.

A. that are least relevant to your search 

B. that are being accessed by other users at that very moment 

C. that are accessed least frequently 

D. that are frequently accessed or that most

PART 1

1. 360.org, an organization working toward curbing climate change, recently conducted an interview with Jessica for the position of a public relations officer. However, interviewers Brenda and Laura are divided over whether Jessica should be given the job. Brenda believes that Jessica does not have in-depth knowledge about the issue of global warming and its impact. On the other hand, Laura feels that Jessica would be perfect for the job because she has strong interpersonal skills. Which of the following, if true, would weaken Laura’s argument?

a. Jessica was unable to communicate clearly why she was right for the job.

b. Jessica was high on confidence about getting the job because of her strong networking skills.

c. Jessica listened intently to the interviewers’ questions before answering them.

d. Jessica was unable to fare well in the written test which analyzed her conceptual skills.

e. Jessica was very friendly and courteous with the receptionist while greeting her.

2. Which of the following best defines organizational behavior?

a. It is a field which is not influenced by factors in the external world.

b. It involves analyzing different people in an industry with independent profit-centered motives.

c. It involves the study of groups of people coming together for collective bargaining.

d. It involves developing exclusively the knowledge of managers and senior-level employees.

e. It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the company’s output.

3. ________ refers to a gut feeling not necessarily supported by research.

a. Inference

b. Logic

c. Rationality

d. Intuition

e. Reasoning

4. Which of the following is a difference between sociology and psychology?

a. Sociology uses various methods of empirical investigation whereas psychology uses limited critical analyses. b. Sociology studies humans and animals whereas psychology focuses exclusively on humans.

c. Sociology studies people in relation to their social culture whereas psychology focuses on the individual.

d. Sociology incorporates research from social sciences, philosophy, and natural sciences; psychology does not. e. Sociology uses only qualitative techniques whereas psychology uses both qualitative and quantitative techniques.

5. Myriam is analyzing the gender roles of men and women in management in the United States and comparing them to the gender roles in management in Japan. She is surveying fifty male and fifty female managers in each country to compare their daily behavior. Myriam’s study exemplifies how ________ contributes to OB.

a. psychology

b. anthropology

c. corporate strategy

d. political science

e. archaeology

6. Which of the following is a result of globalization?

a. lower production of goods in developing nations

b. shared social value among all cultures

c. highly homogeneous workforce

d. organizations being bound by national borders

e. jobs moving to nations with low-cost labor

7. Which of the following is an example of a position in a service job?

a. environmental campaigner

b. production line worker

c. human resource executive

d. flight attendant

e. administrative executive

8. Which of the following is not a reality for today’s workforce?

a. The line between work and non-work time has become blurred.

b. Issues related to well-being have dropped as the number of employees who work at home rises.

c. Employees have heavy outside commitments.

d. Organizations are asking employees to put in longer hours.

e. Many workers never get away from the virtual workplace.

9. Group ________ is the extent to which members of a group support and validate one another at work.

a. associability

b. think

c. affect

d. cohesion

e. maturity

10. Differences in ________ indicate surface-level diversity.

a. values

b. ethnicity

c. style of work

d. attitudes e. personality

11. Malcolm Industries recently hired a large number of workers for the company’s new construction factory in Colorado. During the hiring process, the management made a clear effort to recruit physically strong individuals because the work at the factory involves manual labor. The jobs need to be performed by individuals who have the energy and physical stamina to work for long hours. Which of the following surface-level characteristics did the company most likely concentrate on when selecting the new workers?

a. beliefs

b. values

c. religion

d. personality

e. age

12. Which of the following is the most likely reason why employers should employ older workers?

a. Older workers are flexible and learn quickly.

b. They adjust to new technology promptly.

c. Older workers have extensive work experience.

d. They have shorter tenures and hence lower pension benefits than younger workers.

e. The rates of unavoidable absences are lower than those of younger workers.

13. ________ refers to an overall factor of intelligence as suggested by the positive correlations among specific intellectual ability dimensions.

a. The Flynn effect

b. Malleable intelligence

c. Extelligence

d. General mental ability

e. Virtual memory

14. Jeremy Samuels works in a police department in California. His job often requires him to observe clues that criminals leave behind. His job is to analyze these clues, which helps the department catch the criminal. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Jeremy most likely have?

a. perceptual speed

b. extent flexibility

c. number aptitude

d. spatial visualization

e. dynamic flexibility

15. Lorna Perry, who works in a financial firm in Michigan, is required to calculate a large number of clients’ accounts daily. She needs to tally figures and check accuracy at a high speed. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Lorna most likely use?

a. number aptitude

b. visual perception

c. extent flexibility

d. perpetual speed

e. deductive reasoning

16. In her work in the publishing industry, Vera Loranzo seeks out new authors who she considers promising. In the past two years, she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. After learning about her management’s decision, she is extremely frustrated and is beginning to resent the job she does. However, she knows there is nothing she can do and continues working because of the good perks and salary benefits the job offers. How can Vera’s job attitude be best described?

a. low emotional contagion

b. low job satisfaction

c. high psychological empowerment

d. low job involvement

e. high positivity offset

17. Lillian Stintson works for a global women’s rights organization. In the past few months, she has traveled across the globe for the campaign she was working on. In addition, she has been working weekends to meet campaign milestones. She has now decided to take a month’s holiday to relax and get a much-needed break. She knows that the organization will understand her need for a long holiday. Which of the following best represents Lillian’s feeling?

a. low organizational commitment

b. low employee engagement

c. low job involvement

d. high interest in whistle-blowing

e. high perceived organizational support

18. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about the major job attitudes?

a. They tend to overlap one another.

b. They are highly distinct from one another.

c. They increase cognitive dissonance.

d. They are generally resistant to change.

e. They are not correlated to one another.

19. The ________ response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity.

a. exit

b. voice

c. loyalty

d. neglect

e. acceptance

20. To get his company through some hard economic times, Ben’s working hours have just been reduced from 40 hours a week to 33. Ben is upset about the reduction in time and pay, but he shows up at work every morning and is willing to patiently wait until economic times improve and he can go back to working full time. Which of the following types of response is being displayed by Ben?

a. performance

b. loyalty

c. voice

d. neglect

e. exit

21. Jean Ervin works as a fund raising executive at a women’s rights organization in San Diego. Though she has been with the organization for only a year now, she has already been promoted and often gets excellent feedback from her manager. Her manager says that the key to Jean’s good performance is that she is happy with the work she does and she is excited about the challenges in tasks, which she takes up with a lot of enthusiasm. Which of the following mood dimensions is Jean most likely to be feeling?

a. neutral affect

b. high positive affect

c. high negative affect

d. low positive affect

e. low negative affect

22. Which of the following is an example of deep acting?

a. An Individual’s actual emotions.

b. Trying to modify one’s true inner feelings based on display rules.

c. Hiding one’s inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

d. Emotions that are organizationally required and considered appropriate in a given job.

e. None of the above.

23. Which of the following is an argument used against emotional intelligence?

a. It does not have the capacity to predict criteria that matter.

b. It cannot be measured easily and measures of EI are diverse.

c. It is not genetically influenced and thus is void of an underlying biological factor.

d. It is not closely related to intelligence and personality.

e. It can be learned by experience.

24. Emotions such as relaxation, serenity, and calmness comprise the __________ mood dimension.

a. low positive affect

b. high negative affect

c. high positive affect

d. low negative affect

e. neutral affect

25. __________ refers to individual differences in strength with which individuals experience their emotions.

a. Intelligence quotient

b. Ambiguity effect

c. Affect intensity

d. The Hawthorne effect

e. Positivity offset.

PART 2

1. Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right candidate for the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics about Lugo indicate her ________.

a. personality

b. genealogy

c. knowledge

d. skill

e. talent

2. Which of the following statements is true about personality?

a. Personality remains constant over time.

b. Personality is free from the influence of the environment.

c. Personality can be measured solely through personal interviews.

d. Personality is influenced by hereditary factors.

e. Parents highly influence the development of their offspring’s personality.

3. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the ________ type are practical and prefer routine and order and focus on details.

a. extraverted

b. sensing

c. perceiving

d. intuitive

e. feeling

4. Ellen Athers works as a communication executive at a travel house. She is known to be friendly with her colleagues and interacts with them regularly to build strong work relationships. She knows that her rapport with her co-workers is a crucial part of her work and invests time in these relationships. In addition, she is assertive in making decisions, and colleagues take her decisions seriously. Which of the following types is Athers most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

a. extraverted

b. perceiving

c. solitary

d. brooder

e. introverted

5. Elaine Chamberlain works as a research executive at an environmental organization. Though her colleagues are helpful and friendly, because of her shy nature, she often eats her lunch at her desk and has limited interactions with them. She is glad that her nature of work does not require her to interact with her co-workers to a high extent. Which of the following types is Elaine most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

a. social

b. introverted

c. exhibitionist

d. extraverted

e. gregarious

6. What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of S versus N stand for?

a. social/perceiving

b. sympathetic/thinking

c. stable/negligent

d. shrewd/feeling

e. sensing/intuitive

7. Which of the following is most likely to be a drawback of highly conscientious people according to the Big Five model?

a. They excessively emphasize being creative.

b. They engage in numerous risky behaviors, such as smoking and drinking.

c. They focus on learning instead of performing a job efficiently.

d. They tend to indulge in irresponsible behavior and be disorganized.

e. They do not adapt well to changing contexts.

8. Which of the following is true about narcissists?

a. They go out of their way to be helpful to colleagues.

b. They do not require admiration or importance of people.

c. They have an inferiority complex about themselves.

d. They are meek, timid, and shy in nature.

e. They are more likely to emerge as leaders.

9. Which of the following is an instrumental value according to the Rokeach Value Survey?

a. social recognition

b. personal discipline

c. economic success

d. world peace

e. meaning in life

10. If a person responds to a particular situation in the same way over a long time period, then the attribution theory states that the behavior demonstrates ________.

a. traceability

b. distinctiveness

c. consistency

d. discontinuity

e. consensus

11. According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores _________, we tend to attribute it to external causes. a. low on adaptability

b. high on stability

c. low on consistency

d. low on distinctiveness

e. low on consensus

12. ________ bias indicates the tendency of an individual to attribute his or her own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors.

a. Congruence

b. Anchoring

c. Self-serving

d. Distinction

e. Status quo

13. Harriet Kirby, a fund raising manager at a women’s rights organization, experienced a bad incident last year with the public relations manager of a banking company who had committed to sponsor a charity event. The bank backed out at the last minute. This year, when a renowned international bank executive showed interest in sponsoring the organization’s upcoming annual event, Harriet rejected their participation. She felt that banks have a casual approach toward charity events and it is risky to involve them in the event. Which of the following best characterizes Harriet’s decision?

a. cognitive dissonance

b. self-fulfilling prophecy

c. bandwagon effect

d. self-serving bias

e. selective perception

14. Anne Warner, a climate campaigner at an environmental organization, is in charge of implementing a campaign activity where she needs to increase the use of renewable energy in the villages of Vietnam. For her project, she uses the rational decision-making model to implement activities. She has just completed identifying an appropriate criteria for decision making and has allocated weights to the criteria. Which of the following is Anne most likely to undertake next according to the model?

a. select hydro energy as the best option

b. weigh advantages between solar and wind energy

c. determine goals of the project

d. analyze the problems of the project

e. develop the alternatives

15. The ________ bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.

a. availability

b. anchoring

c. hindsight

d. overconfidence

e. self-serving

16. ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

a. Learning

b. Motivation

c. Leadership

d. Management

e. Emotional labor

17. If Alberta is categorized as a Theory X manager, which of the following behaviors is she most likely to exhibit? a. She will trust her employees to use their discretion in most matters.

b. She will let her employees choose their own goals.

c. She will delegate authority extensively to junior managers.

d. She will empower her subordinates.

e. She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing.

18. Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory?

a. Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback.

b. Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control.

c. People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals.

d. Generalized goals produce a higher level of output than specific goals.

e. Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-distance cultures.

19. The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory.

a. self-determination

b. reinforcement

c. self-efficacy

d. two-factor

e. goal-setting

20. Which of the following sources of increasing self-efficacy involves gaining relevant experience with a particular task or job?

a. vicarious modeling

b. arousal

c. cognitive learning

d. enactive mastery

e. verbal persuasion

21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the job characteristics model?

a. The operation of the model requires employees to have similar skill sets.

b. The operation of the model is relatively individualistic in nature.

c. The operation of the model is universal and unaffected by cultural factors.

d. The operation of the model fulfills only extrinsic motivational needs.

e. The operation of the model cannot be quantitatively measured.

22. The main drawback of representative participation as an employee involvement measure is that ________.

a. it is able to exert its impact only in the short run

b. it is likely to require a major change in organizational roles

c. it is primarily symbolic in its impact

d. it is a time-consuming process

e. it is consistent with the Theory Y view of motivation

23. Which of the following statements is true regarding gainsharing?

a. Gainsharing involves paying employees based on the number of new skills acquired by them in a specific time period.

b. Employees working under gainsharing plans have a greater feeling of psychological ownership.

c. Gainsharing does not distribute profits, only gains in profits.

d. Gainsharing encourages social loafing.

e. Gainsharing focuses on productivity gains rather than profits.

24. Core-plus plans consist of ________. a. predesigned packages of benefits that an employee must accept as a whole

b. pretax dollars up to the dollar amount offered in the plan that an employee sets apart to pay for particular benefits

c. essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefits that an employee can choose from

d. fractions of a company’s profit margins determined on the basis of an established formula

e. monetary benefits which are linked to one’s performance appraisals

25. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?

a. bonus

b. gainsharing

c. employee stock option

d. profit-sharing plan

e. employee recognition

PART 3

1. Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

a. The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

b. A group is characterized by the independence of its members.

c. People have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group.

d. An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.

e. A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.

2. An informal group is characterized by the ________.

a. pursuit of particular organizational goals

b. fulfillment of the need for social contact

c. predetermined designation of tasks of members

d. creation of timelines and rationale

e. stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization

3. Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of is the territory of the ________ theory.

a. reinforcement

b. expectancy

c. social exchange

d. equity

e. social identity

4. Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customers watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, and Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them by saying, “You guys are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.

a. contrast bias

b. social exchange

c. groupthink

d. ingroup favoritism

e. social loafing

5. Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

a. tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own

b. tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

c. tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably

d. tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world e. tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well

6. A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew, the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

a. reference norms

b. performance norms

c. leisure norms

d. appearance norms

e. resource allocation norms

7. Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

a. brainstorming

b. electronic and interacting

c. brainstorming and electronic

d. interacting and brainstorming

e. nominal and electronic

8. The current popularity of teams can be attributed to the fact that ________.

a. they represent a better way to use employee talents

b. they aid in the performance of simple tasks that do not require diverse inputs

c. they reduce the need for coordination and supervision

d. they enable quicker accomplishment of goals than individuals

e. they strengthen the worth of individual teams players over the team

9. GoAir, a low-cost airline, has created a team made up of employees from production, planning, quality control, tooling, design engineering, and information systems to automate the company’s C-17 program. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team.

a. self-managed work

b. task

c. problem-solving

d. command

e. cross-functional

10. Which of the following statements is not true regarding multiteam systems?

a. They are more successful when they have boundary spanners.

b. They are effectively teams of teams.

c. They are collections of two or more independent teams that share a superordinate goal.

d. They perform better when lines of communication are restricted.

e. They are used to offset the problems associated with adding more members to an existing team.

11. Cultural diversity is an asset for teams where tasks ________.

a. require a variety of viewpoints

b. required for completing the work are highly independent

c. involve emotional labor

d. are simple and routine

e. are highly technical

12. When teams are performing nonroutine activities, ________ stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions.

a. disciplinary conflicts

b. resource allocation conflicts

c. discriminatory conflicts

d. task conflicts

e. relationship conflicts 

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team?

a. Cross-functional teams have decreased in popularity in the last few decades.

b. Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects.

c. A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels.

d. In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short.

e. A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department.

14. The ________ network is a type of formal small-group network that relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group’s communication.

a. cross-functional

b. matrix

c. chain

d. all channel

e. wheel

15. Formal information channels are characterized by:

a. the absence of noise in the communication cycle

b. the personal and social nature of usage

c. the compliance with the organizational authority chain

d. the transmission of spontaneous messages

e. the emergence in response to individual choices

16. A relatively superficial consideration of evidence and information making use of heuristics is defined as ________.

a. automatic processing

b. serial processing

c. parallel processing

d. controlled processing

e. depth processing

17. Before buying her new phone, Gina listed the various requirements her new phone must meet. As a wedding planner, much of her work revolves around using e-mail to forward pictures of locations, designs, and food arrangements that she could categorize by themes and prices. She requires a phone with high storage capacity, speedy internet, and easy-to-use methods to organize and save content. After listing these requirements, she fixed a budget and began surveying phones online. She also obtained information from friends. In a week’s time, Gina had shortlisted three models that suited her needs and was ready to make the final choice. Gina used ________ to arrive at this decision.

a. automatic processing

b. heuristic processing

c. selective processing

d. controlled processing

e. superficial processing

18. The time attendance system in the production division at MM, an automobile manufacturing company, was malfunctioning. Consequently, Greg Hill, one of the front-level managers, sent it for repair. In the meantime, he placed a register where all workers of the production division had to provide their time of entry and exit from office. At the end of the week, when looking through the time logs, he had certain concerns about a group of employees. In the next week, he personally tracked the time this group of employees spent working and realized that they were reporting a greater number of working hours than they actually worked. This group engaged in a barrier to communication called ________.

a. selective perception

b. communication apprehension

c. silence

d. lying

e. filtering

19. Trevor Guerney is a manager who believes that those who are to be affected by a change must be involved in the change. Consequently, he always ensures that his subordinates have the knowledge of what is happening around them, and he often holds meetings to obtain employee opinion and suggestions before making any decision that would apply to them. Similarly, Trevor’s team proactively approaches him with problems and potential solutions as they know he will not respond by criticizing them. From the information provided in the scenario, we can say that ________.

a. Trevor’s team has positive leader-member relations

b. Trevor’s team has a low degree of trust propensity

c. Trevor’s team is unsatisfied with his power position

d. Trevor’s team requires more directive leadership

e. Trevor’s leadership is primarily task-oriented

20. According to the situational leadership theory, if employees are unwilling and unable, the appropriate leadership style in this situation would be ________.

a. supportive

b. participative

c. democratic

d. directive

e. person-oriented

21. The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation’s economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government’s second term, he was censured as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. Which of the following theoretical approaches is reflected here?

a. attribution theory

b. trait theories

c. servant leadership perspective

d. behavioral theories

e. path-goal theory

22. The top management of Myers Corp are planning a reorganization of their company to cut costs and increase efficiency. The different department heads have been asked to present their departmental strengths, needs, and concerns at a meeting. The various division heads have come to an agreement that clarity of goals and tasks, detailed procedural guidelines like employee manuals, and a cooperative workforce are their main strengths. Additionally, they are of the opinion that cutting managerial positions to reduce costs and reorganizing Myers Corp as a relatively flat organization is a good approach. This scenario reflects the operation of ________ in replacing the support and ability offered by leaders.

a. substitutes

b. attributes

c. traits

d. charisma

e. vision

23. Buck passing is seen when an employee:

a. transfers responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone else

b. develops explanations that lessen his or her responsibility for a negative outcome

c. prolongs a task to give the appearance of being occupied

d. documents his or her activity rigorously to project an image of competence and thoroughness

e. avoids an unwanted task by falsely pleading ignorance or inability

24. Which of the following is a defensive behavior that is used to avoid change?

a. stretching

b. preventing

c. stalling

d. misrepresenting

e. scapegoating

25. Daphne is one of the three project managers at Virgo Inc., an art and design studio. Raymond and Gabriel, the other two project managers, are unhappy working with Daphne as she always selects projects that suit her area of expertise and avoids projects which require more ambiguous work, have tight deadlines, and represent a low probability of success. Raymond and Gabriel feel that they deserve greater credit than Daphne for being open and accepting different work demands and situations, as opposed to Daphne, who always takes a conservative and risk-averse approach. Daphne is using the defensive behavior of ________ here.

a. playing safe

b. stalling

c. retaliating

d. scapegoating

e. ingratiating

PART 4

1. According to the interactionist view, ________ conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance.

a. formal

b. reactive

c. evaluative

d. functional

e. informal

2. Which of the following is not true regarding gender differences in negotiations?

a. Men value status more than women.

b. Women value compassion and altruism more than men.

c. Women place a lower value on relationship outcomes than men.

d. Men place a higher value on economic outcomes than women.

e. Men and women negotiate differently.

3. Conflict between two people is called ________ conflict.

a. dyadic

b. bilateral

c. intragroup

d. dual

e. intergroup

4. A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent’s interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this co

PART 1

1. 360.org, an organization working toward curbing climate change, recently conducted an interview with Jessica for the position of a public relations officer. However, interviewers Brenda and Laura are divided over whether Jessica should be given the job. Brenda believes that Jessica does not have in-depth knowledge about the issue of global warming and its impact. On the other hand, Laura feels that Jessica would be perfect for the job because she has strong interpersonal skills. Which of the following, if true, would weaken Laura’s argument?

a. Jessica was unable to communicate clearly why she was right for the job.

b. Jessica was high on confidence about getting the job because of her strong networking skills.

c. Jessica listened intently to the interviewers’ questions before answering them.

d. Jessica was unable to fare well in the written test which analyzed her conceptual skills.

e. Jessica was very friendly and courteous with the receptionist while greeting her.

2. Which of the following best defines organizational behavior?

a. It is a field which is not influenced by factors in the external world.

b. It involves analyzing different people in an industry with independent profit-centered motives.

c. It involves the study of groups of people coming together for collective bargaining.

d. It involves developing exclusively the knowledge of managers and senior-level employees.

e. It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the company’s output.

3. ________ refers to a gut feeling not necessarily supported by research.

a. Inference

b. Logic

c. Rationality

d. Intuition

e. Reasoning

4. Which of the following is a difference between sociology and psychology?

a. Sociology uses various methods of empirical investigation whereas psychology uses limited critical analyses. b. Sociology studies humans and animals whereas psychology focuses exclusively on humans.

c. Sociology studies people in relation to their social culture whereas psychology focuses on the individual.

d. Sociology incorporates research from social sciences, philosophy, and natural sciences; psychology does not. e. Sociology uses only qualitative techniques whereas psychology uses both qualitative and quantitative techniques.

5. Myriam is analyzing the gender roles of men and women in management in the United States and comparing them to the gender roles in management in Japan. She is surveying fifty male and fifty female managers in each country to compare their daily behavior. Myriam’s study exemplifies how ________ contributes to OB.

a. psychology

b. anthropology

c. corporate strategy

d. political science

e. archaeology

6. Which of the following is a result of globalization?

a. lower production of goods in developing nations

b. shared social value among all cultures

c. highly homogeneous workforce

d. organizations being bound by national borders

e. jobs moving to nations with low-cost labor

7. Which of the following is an example of a position in a service job?

a. environmental campaigner

b. production line worker

c. human resource executive

d. flight attendant

e. administrative executive

8. Which of the following is not a reality for today’s workforce?

a. The line between work and non-work time has become blurred.

b. Issues related to well-being have dropped as the number of employees who work at home rises.

c. Employees have heavy outside commitments.

d. Organizations are asking employees to put in longer hours.

e. Many workers never get away from the virtual workplace.

9. Group ________ is the extent to which members of a group support and validate one another at work.

a. associability

b. think

c. affect

d. cohesion

e. maturity

10. Differences in ________ indicate surface-level diversity.

a. values

b. ethnicity

c. style of work

d. attitudes e. personality

11. Malcolm Industries recently hired a large number of workers for the company’s new construction factory in Colorado. During the hiring process, the management made a clear effort to recruit physically strong individuals because the work at the factory involves manual labor. The jobs need to be performed by individuals who have the energy and physical stamina to work for long hours. Which of the following surface-level characteristics did the company most likely concentrate on when selecting the new workers?

a. beliefs

b. values

c. religion

d. personality

e. age

12. Which of the following is the most likely reason why employers should employ older workers?

a. Older workers are flexible and learn quickly.

b. They adjust to new technology promptly.

c. Older workers have extensive work experience.

d. They have shorter tenures and hence lower pension benefits than younger workers.

e. The rates of unavoidable absences are lower than those of younger workers.

13. ________ refers to an overall factor of intelligence as suggested by the positive correlations among specific intellectual ability dimensions.

a. The Flynn effect

b. Malleable intelligence

c. Extelligence

d. General mental ability

e. Virtual memory

14. Jeremy Samuels works in a police department in California. His job often requires him to observe clues that criminals leave behind. His job is to analyze these clues, which helps the department catch the criminal. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Jeremy most likely have?

a. perceptual speed

b. extent flexibility

c. number aptitude

d. spatial visualization

e. dynamic flexibility

15. Lorna Perry, who works in a financial firm in Michigan, is required to calculate a large number of clients’ accounts daily. She needs to tally figures and check accuracy at a high speed. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Lorna most likely use?

a. number aptitude

b. visual perception

c. extent flexibility

d. perpetual speed

e. deductive reasoning

16. In her work in the publishing industry, Vera Loranzo seeks out new authors who she considers promising. In the past two years, she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. After learning about her management’s decision, she is extremely frustrated and is beginning to resent the job she does. However, she knows there is nothing she can do and continues working because of the good perks and salary benefits the job offers. How can Vera’s job attitude be best described?

a. low emotional contagion

b. low job satisfaction

c. high psychological empowerment

d. low job involvement

e. high positivity offset

17. Lillian Stintson works for a global women’s rights organization. In the past few months, she has traveled across the globe for the campaign she was working on. In addition, she has been working weekends to meet campaign milestones. She has now decided to take a month’s holiday to relax and get a much-needed break. She knows that the organization will understand her need for a long holiday. Which of the following best represents Lillian’s feeling?

a. low organizational commitment

b. low employee engagement

c. low job involvement

d. high interest in whistle-blowing

e. high perceived organizational support

18. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about the major job attitudes?

a. They tend to overlap one another.

b. They are highly distinct from one another.

c. They increase cognitive dissonance.

d. They are generally resistant to change.

e. They are not correlated to one another.

19. The ________ response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity.

a. exit

b. voice

c. loyalty

d. neglect

e. acceptance

20. To get his company through some hard economic times, Ben’s working hours have just been reduced from 40 hours a week to 33. Ben is upset about the reduction in time and pay, but he shows up at work every morning and is willing to patiently wait until economic times improve and he can go back to working full time. Which of the following types of response is being displayed by Ben?

a. performance

b. loyalty

c. voice

d. neglect

e. exit

21. Jean Ervin works as a fund raising executive at a women’s rights organization in San Diego. Though she has been with the organization for only a year now, she has already been promoted and often gets excellent feedback from her manager. Her manager says that the key to Jean’s good performance is that she is happy with the work she does and she is excited about the challenges in tasks, which she takes up with a lot of enthusiasm. Which of the following mood dimensions is Jean most likely to be feeling?

a. neutral affect

b. high positive affect

c. high negative affect

d. low positive affect

e. low negative affect

22. Which of the following is an example of deep acting?

a. An Individual’s actual emotions.

b. Trying to modify one’s true inner feelings based on display rules.

c. Hiding one’s inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

d. Emotions that are organizationally required and considered appropriate in a given job.

e. None of the above.

23. Which of the following is an argument used against emotional intelligence?

a. It does not have the capacity to predict criteria that matter.

b. It cannot be measured easily and measures of EI are diverse.

c. It is not genetically influenced and thus is void of an underlying biological factor.

d. It is not closely related to intelligence and personality.

e. It can be learned by experience.

24. Emotions such as relaxation, serenity, and calmness comprise the __________ mood dimension.

a. low positive affect

b. high negative affect

c. high positive affect

d. low negative affect

e. neutral affect

25. __________ refers to individual differences in strength with which individuals experience their emotions.

a. Intelligence quotient

b. Ambiguity effect

c. Affect intensity

d. The Hawthorne effect

e. Positivity offset.

PART 2

1. Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right candidate for the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics about Lugo indicate her ________.

a. personality

b. genealogy

c. knowledge

d. skill

e. talent

2. Which of the following statements is true about personality?

a. Personality remains constant over time.

b. Personality is free from the influence of the environment.

c. Personality can be measured solely through personal interviews.

d. Personality is influenced by hereditary factors.

e. Parents highly influence the development of their offspring’s personality.

3. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the ________ type are practical and prefer routine and order and focus on details.

a. extraverted

b. sensing

c. perceiving

d. intuitive

e. feeling

4. Ellen Athers works as a communication executive at a travel house. She is known to be friendly with her colleagues and interacts with them regularly to build strong work relationships. She knows that her rapport with her co-workers is a crucial part of her work and invests time in these relationships. In addition, she is assertive in making decisions, and colleagues take her decisions seriously. Which of the following types is Athers most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

a. extraverted

b. perceiving

c. solitary

d. brooder

e. introverted

5. Elaine Chamberlain works as a research executive at an environmental organization. Though her colleagues are helpful and friendly, because of her shy nature, she often eats her lunch at her desk and has limited interactions with them. She is glad that her nature of work does not require her to interact with her co-workers to a high extent. Which of the following types is Elaine most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

a. social

b. introverted

c. exhibitionist

d. extraverted

e. gregarious

6. What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of S versus N stand for?

a. social/perceiving

b. sympathetic/thinking

c. stable/negligent

d. shrewd/feeling

e. sensing/intuitive

7. Which of the following is most likely to be a drawback of highly conscientious people according to the Big Five model?

a. They excessively emphasize being creative.

b. They engage in numerous risky behaviors, such as smoking and drinking.

c. They focus on learning instead of performing a job efficiently.

d. They tend to indulge in irresponsible behavior and be disorganized.

e. They do not adapt well to changing contexts.

8. Which of the following is true about narcissists?

a. They go out of their way to be helpful to colleagues.

b. They do not require admiration or importance of people.

c. They have an inferiority complex about themselves.

d. They are meek, timid, and shy in nature.

e. They are more likely to emerge as leaders.

9. Which of the following is an instrumental value according to the Rokeach Value Survey?

a. social recognition

b. personal discipline

c. economic success

d. world peace

e. meaning in life

10. If a person responds to a particular situation in the same way over a long time period, then the attribution theory states that the behavior demonstrates ________.

a. traceability

b. distinctiveness

c. consistency

d. discontinuity

e. consensus

11. According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores _________, we tend to attribute it to external causes. a. low on adaptability

b. high on stability

c. low on consistency

d. low on distinctiveness

e. low on consensus

12. ________ bias indicates the tendency of an individual to attribute his or her own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors.

a. Congruence

b. Anchoring

c. Self-serving

d. Distinction

e. Status quo

13. Harriet Kirby, a fund raising manager at a women’s rights organization, experienced a bad incident last year with the public relations manager of a banking company who had committed to sponsor a charity event. The bank backed out at the last minute. This year, when a renowned international bank executive showed interest in sponsoring the organization’s upcoming annual event, Harriet rejected their participation. She felt that banks have a casual approach toward charity events and it is risky to involve them in the event. Which of the following best characterizes Harriet’s decision?

a. cognitive dissonance

b. self-fulfilling prophecy

c. bandwagon effect

d. self-serving bias

e. selective perception

14. Anne Warner, a climate campaigner at an environmental organization, is in charge of implementing a campaign activity where she needs to increase the use of renewable energy in the villages of Vietnam. For her project, she uses the rational decision-making model to implement activities. She has just completed identifying an appropriate criteria for decision making and has allocated weights to the criteria. Which of the following is Anne most likely to undertake next according to the model?

a. select hydro energy as the best option

b. weigh advantages between solar and wind energy

c. determine goals of the project

d. analyze the problems of the project

e. develop the alternatives

15. The ________ bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.

a. availability

b. anchoring

c. hindsight

d. overconfidence

e. self-serving

16. ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

a. Learning

b. Motivation

c. Leadership

d. Management

e. Emotional labor

17. If Alberta is categorized as a Theory X manager, which of the following behaviors is she most likely to exhibit? a. She will trust her employees to use their discretion in most matters.

b. She will let her employees choose their own goals.

c. She will delegate authority extensively to junior managers.

d. She will empower her subordinates.

e. She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing.

18. Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory?

a. Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback.

b. Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control.

c. People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals.

d. Generalized goals produce a higher level of output than specific goals.

e. Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-distance cultures.

19. The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory.

a. self-determination

b. reinforcement

c. self-efficacy

d. two-factor

e. goal-setting

20. Which of the following sources of increasing self-efficacy involves gaining relevant experience with a particular task or job?

a. vicarious modeling

b. arousal

c. cognitive learning

d. enactive mastery

e. verbal persuasion

21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the job characteristics model?

a. The operation of the model requires employees to have similar skill sets.

b. The operation of the model is relatively individualistic in nature.

c. The operation of the model is universal and unaffected by cultural factors.

d. The operation of the model fulfills only extrinsic motivational needs.

e. The operation of the model cannot be quantitatively measured.

22. The main drawback of representative participation as an employee involvement measure is that ________.

a. it is able to exert its impact only in the short run

b. it is likely to require a major change in organizational roles

c. it is primarily symbolic in its impact

d. it is a time-consuming process

e. it is consistent with the Theory Y view of motivation

23. Which of the following statements is true regarding gainsharing?

a. Gainsharing involves paying employees based on the number of new skills acquired by them in a specific time period.

b. Employees working under gainsharing plans have a greater feeling of psychological ownership.

c. Gainsharing does not distribute profits, only gains in profits.

d. Gainsharing encourages social loafing.

e. Gainsharing focuses on productivity gains rather than profits.

24. Core-plus plans consist of ________. a. predesigned packages of benefits that an employee must accept as a whole

b. pretax dollars up to the dollar amount offered in the plan that an employee sets apart to pay for particular benefits

c. essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefits that an employee can choose from

d. fractions of a company’s profit margins determined on the basis of an established formula

e. monetary benefits which are linked to one’s performance appraisals

25. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?

a. bonus

b. gainsharing

c. employee stock option

d. profit-sharing plan

e. employee recognition

PART 3

1. Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

a. The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

b. A group is characterized by the independence of its members.

c. People have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group.

d. An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.

e. A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.

2. An informal group is characterized by the ________.

a. pursuit of particular organizational goals

b. fulfillment of the need for social contact

c. predetermined designation of tasks of members

d. creation of timelines and rationale

e. stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization

3. Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of is the territory of the ________ theory.

a. reinforcement

b. expectancy

c. social exchange

d. equity

e. social identity

4. Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customers watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, and Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them by saying, “You guys are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.

a. contrast bias

b. social exchange

c. groupthink

d. ingroup favoritism

e. social loafing

5. Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

a. tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own

b. tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

c. tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably

d. tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world e. tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well

6. A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew, the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

a. reference norms

b. performance norms

c. leisure norms

d. appearance norms

e. resource allocation norms

7. Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

a. brainstorming

b. electronic and interacting

c. brainstorming and electronic

d. interacting and brainstorming

e. nominal and electronic

8. The current popularity of teams can be attributed to the fact that ________.

a. they represent a better way to use employee talents

b. they aid in the performance of simple tasks that do not require diverse inputs

c. they reduce the need for coordination and supervision

d. they enable quicker accomplishment of goals than individuals

e. they strengthen the worth of individual teams players over the team

9. GoAir, a low-cost airline, has created a team made up of employees from production, planning, quality control, tooling, design engineering, and information systems to automate the company’s C-17 program. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team.

a. self-managed work

b. task

c. problem-solving

d. command

e. cross-functional

10. Which of the following statements is not true regarding multiteam systems?

a. They are more successful when they have boundary spanners.

b. They are effectively teams of teams.

c. They are collections of two or more independent teams that share a superordinate goal.

d. They perform better when lines of communication are restricted.

e. They are used to offset the problems associated with adding more members to an existing team.

11. Cultural diversity is an asset for teams where tasks ________.

a. require a variety of viewpoints

b. required for completing the work are highly independent

c. involve emotional labor

d. are simple and routine

e. are highly technical

12. When teams are performing nonroutine activities, ________ stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions.

a. disciplinary conflicts

b. resource allocation conflicts

c. discriminatory conflicts

d. task conflicts

e. relationship conflicts 

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team?

a. Cross-functional teams have decreased in popularity in the last few decades.

b. Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects.

c. A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels.

d. In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short.

e. A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department.

14. The ________ network is a type of formal small-group network that relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group’s communication.

a. cross-functional

b. matrix

c. chain

d. all channel

e. wheel

15. Formal information channels are characterized by:

a. the absence of noise in the communication cycle

b. the personal and social nature of usage

c. the compliance with the organizational authority chain

d. the transmission of spontaneous messages

e. the emergence in response to individual choices

16. A relatively superficial consideration of evidence and information making use of heuristics is defined as ________.

a. automatic processing

b. serial processing

c. parallel processing

d. controlled processing

e. depth processing

17. Before buying her new phone, Gina listed the various requirements her new phone must meet. As a wedding planner, much of her work revolves around using e-mail to forward pictures of locations, designs, and food arrangements that she could categorize by themes and prices. She requires a phone with high storage capacity, speedy internet, and easy-to-use methods to organize and save content. After listing these requirements, she fixed a budget and began surveying phones online. She also obtained information from friends. In a week’s time, Gina had shortlisted three models that suited her needs and was ready to make the final choice. Gina used ________ to arrive at this decision.

a. automatic processing

b. heuristic processing

c. selective processing

d. controlled processing

e. superficial processing

18. The time attendance system in the production division at MM, an automobile manufacturing company, was malfunctioning. Consequently, Greg Hill, one of the front-level managers, sent it for repair. In the meantime, he placed a register where all workers of the production division had to provide their time of entry and exit from office. At the end of the week, when looking through the time logs, he had certain concerns about a group of employees. In the next week, he personally tracked the time this group of employees spent working and realized that they were reporting a greater number of working hours than they actually worked. This group engaged in a barrier to communication called ________.

a. selective perception

b. communication apprehension

c. silence

d. lying

e. filtering

19. Trevor Guerney is a manager who believes that those who are to be affected by a change must be involved in the change. Consequently, he always ensures that his subordinates have the knowledge of what is happening around them, and he often holds meetings to obtain employee opinion and suggestions before making any decision that would apply to them. Similarly, Trevor’s team proactively approaches him with problems and potential solutions as they know he will not respond by criticizing them. From the information provided in the scenario, we can say that ________.

a. Trevor’s team has positive leader-member relations

b. Trevor’s team has a low degree of trust propensity

c. Trevor’s team is unsatisfied with his power position

d. Trevor’s team requires more directive leadership

e. Trevor’s leadership is primarily task-oriented

20. According to the situational leadership theory, if employees are unwilling and unable, the appropriate leadership style in this situation would be ________.

a. supportive

b. participative

c. democratic

d. directive

e. person-oriented

21. The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation’s economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government’s second term, he was censured as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. Which of the following theoretical approaches is reflected here?

a. attribution theory

b. trait theories

c. servant leadership perspective

d. behavioral theories

e. path-goal theory

22. The top management of Myers Corp are planning a reorganization of their company to cut costs and increase efficiency. The different department heads have been asked to present their departmental strengths, needs, and concerns at a meeting. The various division heads have come to an agreement that clarity of goals and tasks, detailed procedural guidelines like employee manuals, and a cooperative workforce are their main strengths. Additionally, they are of the opinion that cutting managerial positions to reduce costs and reorganizing Myers Corp as a relatively flat organization is a good approach. This scenario reflects the operation of ________ in replacing the support and ability offered by leaders.

a. substitutes

b. attributes

c. traits

d. charisma

e. vision

23. Buck passing is seen when an employee:

a. transfers responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone else

b. develops explanations that lessen his or her responsibility for a negative outcome

c. prolongs a task to give the appearance of being occupied

d. documents his or her activity rigorously to project an image of competence and thoroughness

e. avoids an unwanted task by falsely pleading ignorance or inability

24. Which of the following is a defensive behavior that is used to avoid change?

a. stretching

b. preventing

c. stalling

d. misrepresenting

e. scapegoating

25. Daphne is one of the three project managers at Virgo Inc., an art and design studio. Raymond and Gabriel, the other two project managers, are unhappy working with Daphne as she always selects projects that suit her area of expertise and avoids projects which require more ambiguous work, have tight deadlines, and represent a low probability of success. Raymond and Gabriel feel that they deserve greater credit than Daphne for being open and accepting different work demands and situations, as opposed to Daphne, who always takes a conservative and risk-averse approach. Daphne is using the defensive behavior of ________ here.

a. playing safe

b. stalling

c. retaliating

d. scapegoating

e. ingratiating

PART 4

1. According to the interactionist view, ________ conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance.

a. formal

b. reactive

c. evaluative

d. functional

e. informal

2. Which of the following is not true regarding gender differences in negotiations?

a. Men value status more than women.

b. Women value compassion and altruism more than men.

c. Women place a lower value on relationship outcomes than men.

d. Men place a higher value on economic outcomes than women.

e. Men and women negotiate differently.

3. Conflict between two people is called ________ conflict.

a. dyadic

b. bilateral

c. intragroup

d. dual

e. intergroup

4. A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent’s interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this co

Total Quality Management in Higher Education

TQM at University College of Boras

QASIM ALVI

8/22/2014

The study highlights the general principle of the TQM through a case study in the university of Boras

Contents

Chapter 1: Introduction:4

1.1Background:4

1.2 Quality System at University College of Boras:5

1.3 Research Area:6

1.4 Purpose of the Thesis:7

1.5 Thesis Structure:7

Chapter 2: Research Methodology:9

2.1 Induction and Deduction:9

2.2 Quality Research:9

2.3 Reliability and Validity:10

2.4 Data Collection:11

2.5 Aims and Objectives:12

2.6 Research Question:12

2.7 Survey and Questionnaire:13

Chapter 3: Summary Literature Review:15

3.1 Quality of Higher Education:16

Chapter 4: Limitation:19

Abstract:

The aim of the thesis is to shed light on the principles of TQM and identify the approach that can increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the academic institution. The study is based upon a case study of a university called “University College of Boras” that will explore the quality management of the administrative structure, departments and academic area. The study incorporates evaluation and analysis of the present quality work of the university. Moreover, the TQM principles are compared with the issues of the university in order to shed light on the weakness and strength of the institution. 

This dissertation will include a complete thorough analysis of the TQM of the university and identify the problem statements along with recommendation to improve the quality. The data will be collected through primary data collection method by conducting surveys and interviews whereas secondary data is collected by studying the preexisting articles, books and literature. 

Chapter 1: Introduction:

The Higher Education institutions are rapidly increasing methods and technologies in order to improve the quality of the academic institutions. The administrators of UCB has launched quality administration sector in order to improve the standard of their education system according to the principles of the Total Quality Management (Oakland, 2014). 

Higher Training Institutions (HEIs) has implemented the TQM principles, and it has reinforced the dimension of quality of institutions and subsequent education. The university has decided to conduct an evaluation of the quality work that we cover in the thesis therefore; we benchmark the assessment with the TQM philosophy. 

This chapter therefore, defines the background of the thesis, research area, purpose of thesis and structure of the thesis. Background:

At the start of the twentieth century a rapid development in higher vocational education was started. According to the statistics a rapid increment in the assort of students and scholars has occurred by 1940. From the year 1975 until 2000, university colleges were established as to increase the accessibility of the higher education in Sweden.

The higher education in Sweden emphasize on three basic attributes that incorporates education, research and cooperation with the society and rest of the culture. Moreover, the government of Sweden is also making efforts in the field of higher education and funding the higher education to almost 46%. (Hoang, 2010)

The University Colleges at Sweden are those institutes that do not offer the Research Education but they do offer degrees related to Masters and basic bachelors. 

The University College of Boras was found in the year 1977. According to the current data, UCB has more than 12500 students along with more than 800 employees. The campus of UCB is located at the heart of the Boras. The university consists of six different schools that offer several different multi discipline programs. The departments of University College of Boras are narrated as follows:Library and Information ScienceBusiness and InformaticsFashion and TextilesBehavioral Sciences and Teacher EducationEngineeringHealth Care and Caring Science

In addition to these departments, the university also has two other departments that are called a library and learning resources and central administration center. Figure 1 in the appendix shows the map of the University College of Boras. According to the University College of Boras their vision is to become an institute of a postgraduate education and declare itself as a Professional University instead of being a University College. 

1.2 Quality System at University College of Boras:

The University College of Boras is making efforts since the year 1990 by establishing the first version of the quality management in the year 1992. The quality program initiated by the University College of Boras along with the definition of its culture is studies in the dissertation. Moreover, the UCB board including the chairperson, staff and prefects are concerned about improving their quality work. The program of UCB that was launched in the year 1995 is based upon long-term goals that are for the development of the quality within different aspect of operations with the three-year perspective.

According to the statistics, the evaluation of the improvement was conducted in the year 1998. The board decided that the evaluation would help them to develop a new strategy and quality program for the year 2000 onwards.  The analysis of the quality starts by evaluating the performance of the teachers that includes a simple framework that assist in carrying out the analysis of all the attributes of the activities. 

Moreover, the UCB has a tool named Policy for kvalitetsarbete vid Högskolan I Borås/Policy that is considered as a guidance tool. In order to check and maintain the quality the UCB has a quality assurance system that includes the quality council, committees, chairperson and principal.

1.3 Research Area:

Education is one of the most important service industries in the commercial public sector. According to Babbar (1995) the quality of education is forms the permanent security and wealth of the societies and their subsequent people. In the last two decades, the quality of education and high standard has evolved to be a major concern for the education institutions and governments. Therefore, the explicit quality evaluation demand is increasing in the era today that has also increased the assurance process. Moreover, the funds that are launched by the government to the education sector also demand a quality assessment in order to ensure that education in the schools and universities are maintaining their standards. 

According to Nina and Maureen (2006), the quality of education will also help the university in increasing their number of students and provides an extra edge in the competitive market. Therefore, the HEIs are continuously seeking for the options that can improve the effectiveness of their high quality in education 

The quality of the education has therefore, evolved a new concept termed as “Total Quality Management” (TQM). The phenomenon applied to several to the business and industry is now implemented in the higher education institution in order to provide high quality standards. 

A brief investigation of TQM standards demonstrates the extent to which it could be actualized in HEIs, also numerous framework of TQM are appropriate with the work of HEIs as an aspect of the quality audit and assessment. TQM keeps on being considered by many people as inadmissible intend to the HEIs, still numerous colleges and universities apply TQM as an instrument to enhance the nature of higher education. For example, U.S., U.K., Australia, and New Zealand organizations have received TQM in their advanced education, and there are some effective stories related to the situation. 

1.4 Purpose of the Thesis:

The main goal of this dissertation is about an evaluation of the quality work of the College of Borås. Actually, the Committee for Evaluation and Self-evaluation has pointed out this work to get a general picture of the current quality work of college. This board was designated by the College Board to do an inside evaluation of the quality work of the college every year. This dissertation thus focuses on shedding light on the present aspect of the quality of the University College of Boras.

The dissertation is based upon the assessment and evaluation that is conducted in the shape of a TQM approach and the quality arrangement of this college. This implies that there will be a few examinations about how this establishment works with quality, then discoveries will be in the hope to measure up with a particular methodology to discover the shortcomings and fortifies of the quality arrangement of this college. This assessment and evaluation as benchmarking with a TQM methodology will prompt highlighting the general standards of TQM. It will additionally propel the inquiry of how this methodology might be use to enhance the nature of a scholarly organization, which is the largely goal of this work. 

Overall, the aim is to provide a complete documentation in the connection of quality and a specific TQM approach, which will encourage this college school to fulfill its requirements of stakeholders, including administration board, students, staff, authorities, distinctive national unions to accomplish the college’s objectives and vision

1.5 Thesis Structure:

The study will incorporate the following structure: 

Section 1: Introduction: This section will begin with a few foundations about the work. It will proceed by presenting exploration region, and consistently will clarify the motivation behind the proposal. At last, it will portray delimitations and postulation structure. 

Section 2: Theoretical Frame of References: In this section, the point is about some Primary definitions. At that point, it will proceed by presenting a TQM methodology and portrayal of its comprising parts, and inevitably, a model will be created for the usage of this specific methodology. 

Part 3: Methods: The purpose of this section is about portrayal of the exploration technique. At that point, there will be some discourse about whether this examination is qualitative or quantitative. This part will proceed by a few dialogs about the dependability and legitimacy of this work. Finally, we will try to gather information and data. 

Section 4: University College of Borås: This section will begin by a prologue to the UCB, furthermore it will proceed by exploring the quality arrangement of this college school. The section will explore the history along with the present condition of the polices of the UCB for managing quality of education

Section 5: Analysis and examination: This section will start by investigating the statistics gathered by the examination based upon data collected from past section. The study will address the issues found from the examination. In the following parts of dissertation, suggestions and recommendations for development is depicted based upon the data collected. This part is focused around what it has been talked about in hypothetical case of reference and dissection of discoveries

Section 6: Conclusion: This part would be the end of the dissertation that will define the entire work. Thus, the entire work will be audited unequivocally and the last conclusion will be portrayed at the end.

Chapter 2: Research Methodology:

The research methodology is termed as hermeneutic methodology that includes study of preexisting literature and result of the research.  The research utilize of doing an examination, based upon induction, deduction and abduction, two most normal ones will be illuminated here and we will attempt to propel the one they have utilized.

2.1 Induction and Deduction:

Induction strategy alludes to arriving at from general to particular in examination work. Indeed, encounters assume imperative part in outline of inductive technique. Utilizing estimations and quantitative routines is normal is impelling. Induction begins with and hazy issue. At that point a exhaustive perspective of the vague matter will be made, Bengtsson (1995). Conclusion strategy calls attention to arriving at from general standards or speculations to finishes of each singular wonder, Patel and Davidsson (1994). Actually, finding implies that the scientist moves to from accessible writing and present issues to outcome come about particular occasion. For this situation, one theory examination carried out amid the test studies. The primary objective of finding is dissecting nature of the organization items and after that contrasting the dissection and the hypothesis. Given that, this examination is as careful investigation, and on the off chance that studies the most well-known philosophy is snatching, as indicated by Alvesson and Sköldberg (1994), this procedure will be utilized for this proposition work. Along these lines, the observational application of TQM will be produced and the hypothesis will be balanced 

2.2 Quality Research:

The research methodology, of this study incorporates both qualitative and quantitative methods. Indeed, the qualitative and quantitative examination relies upon the quality and status of the issue. The base of qualitative examination is on study things and non-evaluated information like considerations and standards. For the most part, the center would be on diverse methods for data gathering to get a deeper understanding of the study things. Qualitative exploration accentuates on meetings, meeting, furthermore perception. Because of utilizing these methodologies, a profound seeing about the matter will be picked up, Marshall and Rossman (2006). Truth be told, qualitative exploration trust and apply four strategies to collect and accumulate the information and data. These four systems are support in area, immediate perception, profound meeting, furthermore examination of archives and material society. These strategies sort out the fundamental part of the examination. A few auxiliary and exceptional routines for information gathering improve them. Four picking the strategies for exploration and applying viably, we utilize Brantlinger’s helpful clarification of seven sections of discriminating explanations for qualitative request. The primary part alludes to analyst’s perspectives of the way of examination. The second part demonstrates scientist’s area relative to members. Third component is about the course of my research.

The most imperative divisions are fourth and fifth parts which identify with the goals of the examination and principle crowd of study. The sixth part brings up the analyst’s political area. Finally, seventh part alludes to the perspective of the scientist about herself and the members towards the activity of association. Suppositions made in these seven sorts diagram how the exceptional exploration routines are viewed as and executed amid a study. Quantitative examination concentrates on gathering an extensive number of information things that might be evaluated. The quantitative examination gives data that could be measurable and conclusions and results could be picked up on the premise of these. In the examination and study working, utilizing both qualitative and quantitative exploration strategies might be connected. The qualitative and quantitative routines finish one another in a compelling way. Hence, we need to utilize and dissect the results delivered by both qualitative and quantitative routines in the work of examination. In any case, this work was qualitative and the analysts depend on the current records from of boards of trustees and committees. 

2.3 Reliability and Validity:

The significance of validity is to outline questionnaires defining our inquiries and collect the subsequent answers of respondent in the own perspective. To accomplish high validity, inquiries questions must be arranged so that they are in concurrence with the overview’s point and what is planned to be measured will be measured and nothing more, Bell (1995). Dependability clarifies how estimations strategies oppose against the undesirable impacts. In most cases, dependability of meetings and surveys relies on upon individual status, solace elements, also detailing variables, Bell (1995). A viable approach to achieve high unwavering quality in meeting is picking proper inquiries, enough time designated to each one inquiry, and a nature’s domain. In addition, we must attempt to dodge of blunders in making poll, because these slips can diminish the unwavering quality of inquiries in meeting. Picking faultless and justifiable inquiries in data get-together stage makes a difference us in expanding unwavering quality and prompts picking up viable data and information identified with utilization, Ringer (1995). Notwithstanding, in this work the creators have attempted to build the legitimacy and dependability of the work taking into account the accompanying certainties. The inquiries for meetings have planned ahead of time and the creators’ director has checked them. Moreover, these inquiries were given to the interviewees few days before the gathering to give enough time to them, and they chose interviewees were designated in the top position, they were the seats of distinctive advisory groups. In the gathering session, enough time has been allotted for each one inquiry. At last, after talks with the scientists have gathered the answers and gave answers were offered once again to the respondents for last approbation of what it has been talked about. 

2.4 Data Collection:

In the venture of information and data accumulation, there are two gatherings of information known as primary and secondary data collection method. Primary information is identified with information that is picked up by distinctive methods, for example, meetings and surveys. The secondary data collections are writing studies, daily paper, magazines, related articles, and web. 

Primary data might be gathered in three ways: perceptions, presumption analysis, and meetings, Dahström (1996). Utilizing meetings and perception is more regular than presumption examination. Contingent upon the information required, the inquiries in the meetings are distinctive. The inquiries in the questionnaire must be constrained into few attributes for replying. Qualitative overviews are suitable with open inquiries and result questions. For this situation, planning an inquiry for composing the own elucidation about each one inquiry can prompt better results

Qualitative research utilizes and trusts on profound question more than alternate techniques for information accumulation.” Kahlan and Cannell clarify questioning as “a discussion with a reason”. A qualitative meeting is described on its width rather than its profundity. In actuality, Talking with varies as far as a previous development and in the extension the interviewee has in offering an explanation to inquiries. Meetings are isolated into three gatherings as per “Patton”. These gatherings are the casual conversational meeting, the general meeting aide methodology, and the institutionalized open-finished meeting. Qualitative in profundity meeting are like discussion as opposed to formal systems with perceived answers. For this situation, the questioner presents a few truths and basic issues to uncover the member’s perspectives, yet then again regards how the member structures the answers. Also, systematization in making inquiries must be considered when numerous interviewees are took an interest in the meeting or the clarification and examination of the results is basic for questioner, Marshall and Rossman (2006).

2.5 Aims and Objectives:

The aim of the research is to:

1. Prove that the Total Quality Management concepts increase the quality of HE institutions

2. Distinguish the difficulties in TQM implementation in HE Institutions.

3. Identify the TQM of the University College of Boras

4. Compare the quality of the education at UCB with eth TQM principles

2.6 Research Question:

The study utilizes descriptive methodology, which focuses around analysis of the writing, pre-existing research and perceptions related to TQM for advanced education organizations and supporting the implementation of the TQM ideas in advanced education foundations in UCB. Thus, the study is based upon answering the following questions:What is TQM Model of Higher Education?What is the TQM of the University College of Boras?What are the issues that resist TQM in UCB?

2.7 Survey and Questionnaire:

Questionnaire For the Quality CouncilWhat are the vision and goals of the UBC?What approach does UBC adopt in order to achieve these golas?How far is the UBC from achieving these goals?What are the main concerns of the quality council?What are the main responsibilities of the quality council of UBC?What is meant by quality effort and how do you achieve it?How can UBC improve their student’s services?Does UBC cooperate with the trade or industry zone?How can UBC increase the rate of effectiveness and use the resources efficiently?What is the quality model for Higher education?For whom is UBC working?What measures are used to analyze quality improvement of UBC?

Questionnaire For Committee For Sustainable DevelopmentHow does UCB carry out its actions to reach sustainable growth?How far is this UBC from sustainable growth objectives? (What are the barriers?)How sustainable growth can help this university college to progress the quality of its higher education?What is the definition of quality in higher education?For whom is this university college working?

Questionnaire for Committee For Evaluation and Self-AssessmentWhat are the strategic goals of this university college?What are the approaches of the university college to reach these goals?How far is this university college from those goals? (What are the main barriers?)What are the main tasks of the Self-assessment and Evaluation Committee, and how does it work?Why does the university college assess the quality work?Who are assessing the quality work, except the self-assessment and evaluation committee?How often do they try to do the assessment of the quality work in this university college?Is this institution co-operating with quality assurances and accreditation agencies? If possible, please name and explain to what extent they co-operate?How do they measure the quality improvement in this university college? (By satisfied

Stakeholders, by benchmarking, by the number of educated students, by the number of applicants, by the number of publications, is it qualitative or quantitative, etc.)What is the definition of quality in higher education?What kind of assessment would you prefer to use in the quality work, why? (Self-assessment,external audit, benchmarking, etc)

Chapter 3: Summary Literature Review:

In light of these truths, Hellsten and Klefsjö (2000, pp. 238-44) have characterized TQM as something significantly more than center qualities, and to them it is an administration framework. A framework in the feeling of Deming, “A system of reliant parts that cooperate to attempt to fulfill the point of the framework”, Deming (1994, p.50), which one of the parts is center qualities. Two different parts are strategies and devices that help the center qualities. Actually, definition gave by Hellsten and Klefsjö stresses that the idea of TQM, as a entire thought, is a blend of qualities, strategies and devices, where they have jointed to achieve higher client fulfillment with less assets utilization, see figure 2. This entire idea could be taken to mean as an administration framework. 

In executing the TQM in an association or assembling organization, administration is the fundamental issue. The top administration must consider the objectives of the organization, those moves that must make set up, quality monetarily, and assets, (for example, administration assets) that are important for attaining the vision of the organization, in all parts of value. Henceforth, for enhancing the quality of an association, duty and information of the authority is the first step. After that, a society must be existed focused around some center qualities, which are Customer focusDecisions based on factsProcess focusContinuous improvementCommitment of everybody 

Quality Function Deployment (QFD) is a strategy that relentlessly distinguishes client needs also desires on administration particulars and outlines parameter and exchanges these needs to administration qualities and extra to the administration process. Additionally, it is an effective philosophy for correspondence and interest. For this situation, it needs gather parts to work together with a specific end goal to accomplish a crucial premise for nonstop and coordinated administration change. To attain and execute QFD, we need to take after four steps. Initially is doing a business sector examination in request to comprehend client necessities and desires. Second is distinguishing and at the same time evaluating the same time the contenders’ capability to satisfy clients’ expectations. Third perceives key achievement elements of association’s item available. Finally, the fourth step is exchanging these key variables into item and procedure qualities in association with configuration, change, and production. The goal of QFD is to decipher the desires of clients into item and procedure details by consistently allowing the needs be repeated at each level of item change process. 

As per Bunney and Dale (1997, pp. 183–189) for utilizing and applying Quality Management Instruments (quality control devices) and systems, the a few notes must be thought seriously about by every association to attain great comes about, these some of notes are: 

• Identifying phases of change, presenting suitable Qmts for suitable capacity, considering accessible asset are essential elements in AQMT. Distinguishment of the synthesis of proper apparatuses for particular application, alongside satisfactory preparing is crucial for execution of Qmts. 

• To overcome troubles with respect to the status change process, Qmts ought to be used to unravel generally characterized issues. 

• Understanding of devices inside appropriate gathering of individuals identifying with their positions will cause QMT to turn into a piece of day-by-day exercises inside the association. 

• Providing satisfactory preparing to the right individuals at the perfect time, alongside decently characterized Qmts is key for fruitful change 

3.1 Quality of Higher Education:

Principle concern in this work is about meaning of nature of advanced education that has turned out to be much more troublesome as opposed to assembling items and administrations. There is no question about the point that quality assumes a critical part in today has advanced education, Owlia and Aspinwall (1997, pp. 527-543). Feigenbaum (1994, pp. 83-4) believes competition between nations the nature of instruction is the primary and essential variable, and this is on the grounds that nature of items and administrations is characterized by the activity, choice making, and considerations of supervisors, architects, laborers, and educators in the quality work. Like other organizations, in today’s business sector, instruction and specifically advanced education has entered to business rivalry, which is because of practical strengths, Seymour (1992). Freeman accepts that this rival is firstly due to the change of the worldwide training business, and is because of the lessening of the legislative supports that empower associations to search for some other fiscal sources, Freeman (1993). Thusly, recognizing what the quality means in advanced education as the first period of value work appears to be fundamental. Notwithstanding, still there is nobody interesting definition about the nature of advanced education, there are many of these clarifications that in some way or another have industry viewpoint that in “imperceptible”

Besides, Cheng and Tam (1997) recommend, “Instruction quality is a somewhat obscure and disputable idea” and Pounder (1999) contends that quality is a “famously questionable term”. Overall, some different masters in the connection of value in advanced education want to redress those definitions originating from industry and utilize the overhauled variant of definition of value in advanced education. Case in point Campell and Rozsnayi (2002, pp. 19–20), have characterized the idea of nature of advanced education in a few routes identified with industry:  Quality as perfection: this definition is thought to be the customary scholastic perspective that holds as its objective to be the best. 

Quality as zero blunders: this is characterized most effectively in mass industry in which item particulars could be made in point of interest, and institutionalized estimations of uniform items can demonstrate adjustment to them. As the results of advanced education, the graduates, are not anticipated that will be indistinguishable, this perspective is not generally thought to be material in advanced education. Quality as wellness for purposes: this methodology obliges that the item or administration has congruity with client needs, prerequisites, or cravings. 

Quality as change: this idea centers solidly on the learners: the better the advanced education foundation, the more it attains the objective of enabling understudies with particular abilities, learning and state of mind that empower them to live and work in the information society. Quality as limit: characterizing an edge for quality intends to set certain standards and criteria. Any organization that achieves these standards and criteria is esteemed to be of value. 

Quality as worth for cash: The thought of responsibility is fundamental to this meaning of quality with responsibility being focused around the requirement for restriction out in the open consumption

Quality as upgrade or change: This idea stresses the quest for nonstop change and is predicated on the idea that accomplishing quality is focal to the scholarly ethos and that it is scholastics themselves who know best what quality is some time or another. Notwithstanding of these distinctive definitions on nature of training, nature of yield and notoriety in scholarly research are well on the way to be esteemed in Heis. Nonetheless, quality frameworks adjusted from business and industry operations need to be reoriented, and re installed for advanced education conditions to turn the center from the administration based to the training based practices, as indicated by Mizikaci (2006). 

Tribus (1994) accepts that the destinations of each school, or college, ought to be to give every understudy, chances to enhance in learning, know how, astuteness, and character. The principal idea empowers understudies to comprehend, and the second one encourages them to do, in like manner the third one empowers understudies to set necessities, lastly the character gives the probability for them to coordinate, to drive forward and to wind up regarded and trusted parts of society.

Chapter 4: Limitation:

The fundamental confinement for this venture was about discovering some applicable reports with respect to the quality work of the college school of Borås, since established reports were distributed in Swedish. Truth be told, discovering significant English reports was the primary sympathy toward analysts. On the other hand, an interpreter was delegated to help the scientists in this setting, because of some confinements for her; she could not proceed until the end of the work. Hence, the creators have to be confined to the accessible information and talks with keeping in mind the end goal to demonstrate the officially existing quality framework in this college. In addition, considering time/credit casing of this proposition work, there was an understanding for the number of meetings for this work 

References:

Oakland, J. S. (2014). Total Quality Management and Operational Excellence: Text with Cases. Routledge. 

Hoang, D. T., Igel, B., & Laosirihongthong, T. (2010). Total quality management (TQM) strategy and organisational characteristics: Evidence from a recent WTO member. Total quality management, 21(9), 931-951. 

Wang, C. H., Chen, K. Y., & Chen, S. C. (2012). Total quality management, market orientation and hotel performance: the moderating effects of external environmental factors.&nbs